I am currently looking at a lot of journals on physiology from the first half of the 20th century. I was surprised to find that most, if not all, of the members of the editorial boards of these journals were from the journal's home country, or countries for the Scandinavian journal. However, today many of the journals, such as Acta Physiologica and the American Journal of Physiology, have editorial boards with a much broader international composition.
So if somebody could illuminate when and why this change happened, either for scientific journals in general or for specific fields of science (not necessarily physiology), I would be very happy.
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I understand that Napoleon moved his armies through Spain to invade Portugal, but was that just a pretext to have his armies strategically positioned to invade Spain?
And what did he want to do with Spain, make it part of France?
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TL;DR: Was there really 2 separate "crusades" in 1212 that were led by and mostly composed of kids? Some say yes, other say no as "kids" actually meant "poor peasants", don't know who to believe. Also dead people apparently can write.
Warning: poor grammar ahead
I like to pretend that I'm somewhat well read on the events of the first, second & third crusades since I studied these in college, but my understanding of what happened afterward is at best muddy and at worst full of /r/badhistory.
Still, I always believed that in the year 1212, two 12 years old shepherds, one leaving from France and the other from Germany, each assembled a group mostly composed of kids by preaching in their respective country.
These groups then spectacularly failed to reach Jerusalem, the one from Germany losing around 65% of its 20 000 members while crossing the Alps and the french one ending when the 30k or so kids composing it were told to go back home by Philip II
According to a french monk, after this there was 7000 or so kids on the initial 30k who decided to go ahead anyway with that whole "going on a crusade thing" and they supposedly end up being made slaves on the boats of two rich french merchants who told them that they'd help them reach Jerusalem, a few of them died when 2 of the "expedition's" 7 boats crashed during a storm and the remaining kids were then sold.
From my understanding that last part widely recognized as having never happened since we only have that one monk's writing
mentioning it.
(Weird thing I just realized, this story is said by some to have been written between 1260 & 1295 by Alberic of Trois-Fontaine, but he died somewhere around 1252 from what I can see.)
But now I'm reading a little more on it and it seems that no one agree on what really happened or even if it happened at all (see the wikipedia article on this, which I may have used to refresh my memory while writing this). Could anyone shed some light on this for me please?
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I'm wondering about anything they said, regardless of whether they gave real responses or strawmanned or manipulated the discussion in some other way.
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It seems many kings and rulers during the enlightenment and dark ages always made sure they had a biological child take their place. The Japanese royalty and shoguns also seemed to always have a biological child take their place after death. Why did the Roman Emperors so rarely have a large number of biological children so it was more likely their child would take their place?
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I shocked my cat trying to pet him, and I realized that he must have no idea why sometimes when I reach out to pet him it hurts a little for a sec. I can tell he doesn't like the sensation.
This got me thinking, though, what in the world did ancient peoples think was going on when this happened? It's such a bizarre phenomenon when not understood, and endlessly fascinated me as a kid. I can only assume there's some interesting stories about guesses as to the cause of the unique sensation.
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I've read that at Joan of Arc's posthumous rehabilitation trial, someone said they heard from someone who heard from the executioner that Joan of Arc's heart and entrails remained after the rest of her was burned and that when he then tried to burn the heart and entrails, he was unable to do so and thus they were thrown into the Siene. Does anyone know if this was the only account of Joan's heart and entrails not burning or if there were others? If there were other accounts saying this, how many were there and how many came directly from witnesses instead of third-hand like the one I mentioned? Did word of Joan's heart and entrails not burning or supposedly not burning spread around the general public between the time the rest of her was burned and the time the rehabilitation trial started?
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(I asked this a year ago but didn't get any traction, trying again because I am extremely curious and I have been unable to find anything online.)
In his work published in 1957 on the European Reformation, Will Durant wrote that Queen Isabella of Spain originally rejected Columbus’s request for support of his attempted journey to Asia across the Pacific, until a baptized Jew who advised her told her it would be a good opportunity to convert many people to Christianity. This person then organized a loan that financed a large portion, possibly a majority, of the journey that eventually led to Columbus landing on San Salvador. How accurate is this portrayal viewed by historian’s today?
Here is the relevant text: "At this critical juncture a baptized Jew prodded the march of history. Luis de Santander, finance minister to Ferdinand, reproached Isabella for lack of imagination and enterprise, tempted her with the prospect of converting Asia to Christianity, and proposed to finance the expedition himself with the aid of his friends. Several other Jews- Don Isaac Abrabanel, Juan Cabrero, Abraham Seniorsupported his plea. Isabella was moved, and offered to pledge her jewels to raise the needed sum. Santander judged this unnecessary; he borrowed 1,400,000 maravedis from the fraternity of which he was treasurer; he added 350,000 out of his own pocket; and Columbus somehow got together 250,000 more. On April 17, 1492, the King signed the requisite papers. Then or later he gave Columbus a letter to the Khan of Cathay; it was China, not India, that Columbus hoped to reach, and which to the end of his life he thought he had found. On August 3 the Santa Maria (his flagship), the Pinta, and the Nina sailed from Palos with eighty-eight men, and provisions for a year."
http://citeseerx.ist.psu.edu/viewdoc/download?doi=10.1.1.457.975&rep=rep1&type=pdf
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Obviously, when Latin was used as the primary language of literature, law, and recording, plenty of surnames, or geographically based surnames would have been passed down to modern in Latinized form. Off the top of my head, I think of Duns Scotus, Copernicus, Stradivarius, Mercator, Vesalius, and Hugo Grotius. However, after a certain point in the early modern era, we don't seem to often refer to famous historical figures by their Latinized names anymore. I originally thought this might reflect a shift from Latin to vernacular languages as the primary languages of scholarship, but I'm not sure this is quite right—we know him as Isaac Newton, not Isaacus Newtonius, despite the Principia being in Latin.
However, the practice seems to last longer, and even to the present day in some cases, in the German-speaking parts of Europe and especially in Scandinavia. The Lion of the North is commonly known as Gustavus Adolphus, the Polish-Saxon rulers are called Frederick Augustus I & II. Among scientists: Celsius, Linnaeus And these endings are preserved in ordinary surnames, too. The Dutch have continued to officialy foist such given names as Jacobus, Marinus, and Hendrikus upon their unfortunate progeny, but by and large the descendents of Hugo Grotius probably use "de Groot".* This seems to be less the case farther east: again, quickly off the top of my head I can think of more modern figures like Jean Sibelius, Walter Gropius, Svante Arrhenius, Friedrich Paulus, Gustav Magnus, and a couple of people named Möbius.
Is this an entirely imagined phenomenon, or is there some real basis to it? Or is these remnants of Latinized surnames to be expected? One can imagine that in Romance-speaking countries a formal Latin name could quickly revert to the vernacular equivalent with the decline of Latin as a legal language, without too much friction at all. In Germanic-speaking countries, one could also imagine that this transition would be less subtle. Or were Latinized surnames a signifier of some sort of noble status, a holdover from a time when commoners wouldn't have had surnames at all? I'm also wary, when speaking of Prussian and eastern Germanic surnames, not to include Lithuanian names, which I understand use -ius and -us as native, non-borrowed endings.
*Didi Gregorius, Andreas Cornelius, and Oscar Pistorius seem like prominent exceptions to the de-Latinization of Dutch names
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Obviously Czechoslovak industry and military equipment made up a huge chunk of the German war effort in the early years of the war. What if that was turned against the Germans during the Munich Crisis? Could Czechoslovakia bloody the Germans enough to prevent their own collapse?
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Not sure if this is the right sub for this, I apologize if I’m in the wrong place. I’m trying to find what a typical medical student’s class load looked like, as in what each year might have studied. For example: when did they begin to do labs and watch in a operating theater - right away in Freshman year or later?
I’ll take basically any other information I can get my hands on as well. Classroom settings, dormitories, student life, teaching styles, etc...I’m specifically researching Canadian schools but honestly American is fine as well. Europe was so far ahead that it won’t really be too helpful though!
So far, google hasn’t been too helpful. UNMC has a very short page about curriculum in 1900, not particularly full of information. I’ve been able to locate a few photos of what a campus looked like In Toronto and read the entire history of the University of Toronto.
Thanks in advance if you’re able to help!
EDIT: I am happy for information presented in any media type - online articles, books, documentaries, fictional movies, anything! The Knick TV show is the closest I’ve found so far haha
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He seems to have been a forerunner of many ideas that became prevalent during the early 20th century.
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I tried to google this question, but for some reason I could only find numerous articles giving the percentages of "Southerners" that owned slaves. I would like to know the percentage of the US as a whole.
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With the recent events going on around the world the cival war and the confederate flag have been a hot topic lately.
Can anyone really explain the true meaning behind the flag and how the war really was started in the first place?
All the people in the defense of the flag I'm hearing is because the war wasn't started due to slavery it was taxation and the flag is a heritage purposes.
From what I learned was the war was actually started due to slavery laws and the flag to me is a constant reminder of in fact that.
My biggest comparison is you don't see Germany proudly flying nazi flags around. They acknowledge their history and shown it in museums where they belong not in public or streets where you are constantly reminded of hate. Why don't we follow this?
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Related questions: Why are the names of classical music pieces just bland descriptions? When and why did artist start putting evocative names to their music? Did the ancients and medievals name their music?
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