Very often I hear about how it was completely normal to throw your poop onto city streets, or how people didn't wipe their ass etc, but honestly this just seems incredibly far-fetched to me. I know medieval people weren't stupid, I can't imagine them somehow not knowing this being bad. We are naturally averse to shit too, how did they not find it disgusting? Is the whole thing just a myth? Is it a half-truth? Surely people couldn't have thrown their own shit onto the streets just like that for nearly a 1000 years.

I know you guys have probably been firebombed by ancient apocalypse questions equally nonsense and inquisitive, and I don’t know what mine falls under lmao. But in the show, Hancock links nearly all the entrances or other specific parts of the several megaliths and temples he visits to the sky. They supposedly coincide with solstice sunrises and sunsets. The same is proposed for the Serpent Mounds bends, head and tail. If this is true, personally it would be intriguing and maybe even change my opinion on his pretty outlandish theory. Another interesting thing to be fact checked that I couldn’t find online was that one tablet/carving of the constellations that supposedly reveal a date of some sort :)

It fascinates me how white Americans seem to tout their Irish or Italian heritage over that of the far more prevalent German or English ancestry. Did this come from the legacy of colonialism and world wars? Or was it that the legacy of later immigration movements, and maybe also that of catholicism, meant that the Irish and Italian families were more likely to keep their traditions? Does it have to do with police brigades? What is it?

I'm asking mostly from a British perspective, but any info is interesting to me.

Let's say I'm an accountant/lawyer/other highly paid occupation but I'm conscripted into the army during WW1/2. I've presumably got a mortgage that's reasonable for my regular income and am the sole earner in my family. How would my family cope on what is presumably a much lower income? Was there a moratorium on home repossessions? Or, did most of the professional class avoid conscription somehow?

Given that finding the year is basically counting seasons since an arbitrary point, where there any times in which historical documents or accounts used the wrong date, either by error or local difference in calendar system? I can imagine outside of major cities there probably weren’t a lot of people per community who would actually receive value from keeping track of their calendar date?

I know this probably isn’t common, but I’m curious if it’s happened. I’m assuming most civilizations that wrote things down had calendars of some kind.

Practically, how were rebels identified and kept off the ballot. What happened if one ended up on the ballot anyway?

I am currently reading about Atilla. He seemed to have success in Europe using what I believe to be similar tactics in battle to the Mongolians - mounted archers, fast paced cavalry etc.

So I am wondering why the Mongols did not advance further into Europe. Apart from the huge distance from their homelands, one other explanation I've heard is that there wasn't enough land for pasture in Europe to sustain the huge retinue of horses the Mongol armies took to war. Is it simply the distance and difficulty in sustaining the army that prevented them advancing in Europe, or is there more to it?

To keep it short and simple what could stop planes more efficiently and effectively, for examples it'll be the American bofors 40mm anti aircraft gun and the german 12.8 cm Flak 40 anti aircraft gun

Were they mutually exclusive categories? I have heard of the Sonderkommando before, but only recently encountered the term Kapo. I know that they were both categories of prisoners that were given "priveleges" (actual blankets or food) in exchange for doing acts counter to the interests of their fellow prisoners, but what is the functional and technical difference between these roles?

Despite the prevalence of historical conflicts with Chinese dynasties (Han, Yuan, Qing) and a generally close relationship between Joseon and Chinese dynasties, why was Joseon never fully conquered or assimilated?

I wasn’t able to find a realistic answer for this question on other platforms, due to many saying that they are today’s turks. Which makes no sense, since turks came there after the middle ages from Asia.

Would roman troops of the late 3rd century bc, especially those under Camillus during the Etruscan-Roman wars, and/or greek phalanx under the greek polises in the peloponnesian war find any or all advantages if their command system would be switched with the 21st century western system?

The Legio system in Rome and the Palanx in Greece are staples of ancient warfare, each with their own system of command and troop organization. Today, western armies such as the US, France, UK and others use a military command vastly different from the ancient’s. If, barring any other butterfly effects, these ancient wars’s militaries suddenly used modern doctrines of command, what advantages, disadvantages and differences would there be?

This may be one that has been asked before. However, I would love a concrete answer to this. I attempted to write an essay on this subject in high school in tandem with similar topics surrounding life in The Dark Ages. However, I was never satisfied with my research back then and even now. I would like to know what is fact and what is just internet hogwash.

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(Edit, Grammar correction.)