When and how did this Moon landing denying movement really born in the US?

I'm talking about the guy from the Three Kingdoms. I know he was also called Cao Mengde etc. Isn't that like calling George Washington "Washington Washington"?

Did the ancient Chinese not find it strange?

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The Mississippi River is the most important river in the US, playing a great role in its development. The Ohio River is not far behind.

Yet, there are only a couple small towns at their confluence, the biggest one being Cairo, Illinois, which contains ~3,000 residents.

So, why did no large settlement spring up, in what seems like would be an excellent site for a trading hub?

Im sorry I don’t know where else to ask this. I want to learn about fort design, construction what features made them effective, how they changed over time, strategic locations (geography) like hills, who used them... and more. Where do I look? Any books videos or online resources? I tried google but thats been less than helpful

So, I am currently writing some stories that are heavily influenced by King Arthur, the Round Table, etc. But during my research about the subject, I didn’t found specific dates regarding when the events of the Arthurian Legends could have happened.

I have read that the historical version of King Arthur was a Roman in the 5th Century, I also heard that he could have existed around the 9th and 10th centuries.

Then I asked my history teacher in college: She said that, if King Arthur existed in the way the legends depict him, it should have been somewhere between 1200 and 1400.

What do you guys think? Which dates could be the most believable and historically accurate?

*"How long ago..."

There's a meme going around about "if you got $5K a day since Columbus's voyage 'till today you'd still not be a billionaire." Conventional wisdom says he set sail in August 3, 1492, but an interesting discussion popped up in my FB post on how we don't actually know when he set sail; I believe the premise of the argument is that the year/date was documented Aug 3, 1492 but that relative date may be different in regards to if we were to travel back in time 192,548 days.

I've only ever heard 1492 and while there may be a discrepency between Julian/Gregorian calendars, it would be a matter of days/weeks, not to the tune of 20+ years (as it would have to be to make the meme's math wrong).

Can someone help with some clarification on the matter?

Dear historians, I appologize if this was asked already. I know that USSR history is very contentious and politically charged (e.g. the ukranian 'holodomor debate'), but I seek whatever insight you might have. At uni during History of Empires classes we read Snyder's 'Bloodlands', which depicts the gruesome terror and violence totalitarian (Nazi and Soviet) regimes caused in Eastern Europe during and after WWII. However I also heard many leftists saying Snyder's work is also very politically motivated, funded by the Clintons or whatnot, and had little to no academic peer-review. Snyder happens to be coming to my country for a discussion, and I would like to know whether to buy into his take on Eastern European history or to prepare some questions/critiques. So, is it accurate? Is it credible? Are there any issues with it? Help! Thanks and sorry if this is a repeat question.

This is a question thats bogging my mind. How did they do it? They have mostly light horse archers and logically they wouldn't be able to beat heavier chinese troops with crossbows and infantry and other peoples like khwarezmians and europeans. It was mostly like this before them, steppe armies would get defeated against sedentary armies in straight battles. If they won they would do so by indirect warfare like cutting their supply off or ambushing. Mongols seem to just be able to engage all sorts of peoples and defeat them in not only combat, but sieges too. How did they do that? Maybe its because they used auxiliary troops which could be heavier, though I don't know how much they did. Anybody good in mongol history care to explain?

After the land Hungary lost because of the treaties signed, it had no access to the sea, why was Hungary granted 3 Patrol boats when they had no open water?

What are some of the earliest known uses of this term to describe the early medieval period?

Historically its known that Great Britain, Germany, And the U.S were struck hard by the wall street crash and eventual depression, but how did other nations suffer, such as South American or Asian countries?

I'm not sure if this is the right place for me to ask you guys this, but I'm conducting an interview with a Navy Sailor Korean War Veteran about his service, and I wanted to see if you guys as historians had any questions you always wondered about on the subject. I'm not going to be asking him questions about death, combat, trauma etc. My questions are more along the lines of perspective. A few for example: How much did WWII influence your decision to volunteer? Your thoughts on communism before vs after the war? How did you feel when a similar conflict arose in Vietnam? If you guys could help me out with some great solid questions you've always wanted answered or wondered about, I would really appreciate it, especially since my intended audience are those interested in historical events. Thank you.

Hello all!

I have a question. I am Assyrian, and I speak Aramaic. Yet constantly where I live Assyrians are called and labelled (namely by Arab cultures, like the Lebanese for example) Arabs. I tell them that we are not, but still they go on about how we are, and they make fun of us as we have no country (not cool ): )

I’d really like to know in a much more educated sense how and why we are not Arabs. I have said that we (the Assyrians) had our own state, how we were never “arabised”, how we speak the language of Jesus (I bring this fact up because we’re all Christians), and how our empire was one of the strongest empires that had ever existed. Yet they still mock us about how we have no country, how we are fake by not identifying as Arabs when in fact we are Arabs, and so forth.

Could someone explain to me (so that I may explain to them I guess, or maybe so that I understand the topic better, because honestly it doesn’t seem like what I’m doing is working - maybe if I speak in a more educated manner then they’ll understand? or maybe it’s because I’m 16 and they automatically oust me because solely of my age?) how and why Assyrians are NOT Arabs? Thanks so much! Also sorry for the huge task, I know it’s a lot to ask and I’m terrible sorry. It’s just that the constant berating happens on social media and irl too. I understand that it’s mostly jokes (I think, but some people genuinely believe that we’re Arabs) but being called Arabs, being told that we don’t exist because we don’t have a country really really sucks.

I understand that the title of caliphate is pretty vague, but given that the KSA controls a lot of the most important religious sites in Islam and sets itself up as an Islamic polity, I don't really understand why it wouldn't claim the title of caliph at the very least for rhetorical purposes. It seems to me that it would be especially useful given their rivalry with Iran.

I meant to say would and not does, sorry

The 14th Amendment made it so every person born in the US, slave or not, would be granted full US Citizenship. How did it work prior to then? Was it simply such an arduous journey to get to the US prior to the 1860s that it was never really an issue? Was it simply a case of declaring your residency with the state so you could vote in state and national elections? There were obviously no passports back then and you could technically travel just about anywhere as long as the country you were entering was cool with it.