I was at my local library, when i found a book by a historical figure that i had known about from a friend. (In this case it was John Reed) I was keenly aware that he was a socialist, which brought up the question. Is the book a reputable source on the russian revolution?
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Was it used in medieval manors, royal or church court? Thanks so much!!!!!
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It made me a bit interested in history, and not see it as a mass of unrelated facts that you have to remember but a live story unfolding on the big scene of the entire world.
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In The European Miracle (1987), Jones argues that Europe’s political fragmentation proved advantageous for economic growth (while politically unified empires like China withered). And this political fragmentation is the result of geography; In comparison to China, Europe’s fertile lands are relatively dispersed and is cut apart by natural barriers. A counterexample for this theory is India which was also not unified from 5th to 16th century. Yet India did not experience the same growth-inducing effects as Europe. (I read all of this from an economic textbook - Weil, David. Economic Growth 3e (2013)).
Are there such theories using geography to explain the relative “success” of Ancient Greece compares to other ancient “civilisations" of the time?
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What lead each country to design their helmets the way they did? Like why does the Stahlhelm look like those coal buckets and the British helmets look like a bowl?
Which design was the most effective in terms of protecting its user from all the different threats of battle? Which helmet was better at which task?
Also, what's your personal favorite? Whether it's the design, history, etc.
Thanks.
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Would a Royal mistress be given her own ladies in waiting? Were they given lands, homes outside the royal court? When I say mistress I mean one that is acknowledged and known like Madame pompadour of France. I have been looking online but can't really find a solid answer.
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This is a concept that has fascinated me for some time. What I know is that a very westernized Japanese man named Nitobe wrote a book comparing Bushido and samurai to chivalry and medieval knights.
What is the true history of Bushido? Did the Samurai class ever have a uniting set of ethics and codes that made them a distinct part of feudal society?
How did the Japanese turn this philosophical concept into a nationalistic idea that fueled propaganda, State Shinto, and imperialism?
Any historical/cultural input would be much appreciated!
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Thursday Reading and Recommendations is intended as bookish free-for-all, for the discussion and recommendation of all books historical, or tangentially so. Suggested topics include, but are by no means limited to:
Asking for book recommendations on specific topics or periods of history
Newly published books and articles you're dying to read
Recent book releases, old book reviews, reading recommendations, or just talking about what you're reading now
Historiographical discussions, debates, and disputes
...And so on!
Regular participants in the Thursday threads should just keep doing what they've been doing; newcomers should take notice that this thread is meant for open discussion of history and books, not just anything you like -- we'll have a thread on Friday for that, as usual.
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How dissimilar would feudalism in France have been compared to Christian Spain in let’s say 1000. From what I understand, feudalism wasn’t really introduced in England until the Normans took over and brought Frankish culture with them. Was there there feudalism in Spain or Italy or are they like England without true feudalism like we colloquially understand it?
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I'm doing some research and so far haven't been able to find an answer to this question. My question is, how long after the coalition's victory at the Battle of Waterloo did British troops remain in France? Did they leave not long after the battle or did the majority stay as part of the 150,000 strong occupation force after the signing of the Treaty of Paris in November? Did they continue to maintain a presence in France after 1818 when supposedly most were withdrawn?
Thank you for any responses.
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I'm reading an account on the Viking attack on Seville together with other accounts, and I've read a bit regarding it, that it seems that Muslims considered vikings 'ancient zorastrians' or 'fire-worshippers' which is why they called them Majus, but I vaguely remember something about Majus meaning pirate or sea-raider as well. Anyone who knows exactly why they were titled in such way?
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To what extent had Sicilians even embraced Islam in the first place?
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Were they pre-poisoned a head of time, with something dry yet toxic, or did they dip it in something right before shooting?
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This is especially surprising given the USSR itself owes its existence to a revolution (actually, one revolution and a coup). So why couldn't the same be accomplished in the Soviet Union itself?
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People born in the late 1800's went from a world with primitive mechanical technology to a world with electricity, automobiles, trains, airplanes, and a societal overhaul that allowed people to go from farming mostly to intellectual pursuits. That must have been a huge culture shock for them.
Are there any works on this topic? I mean we see how there's a generational difference with the Internet, the older generations who are slow to adapt. But this is probably LESS of a shift than from the 1800's to 1900's.
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Is there any records of soldiers during the medieval period suffering Post traumatic stress after battle? And if so, how where they treated?
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I read about this in a post just now and it seems interesting, but I am not sure how historically correct this premise is. Is it true that a person of African descent could not really move upwards in society and achieve status and a certain degree of success in the Arab world, or was it actually possible?
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Question for people, as my wife has tried to explain (Monarchy Diehard)
Regarding Queen Elizabeth II, or any other monarch really, of a Commonwealth Country, how does it actually work with numbering?
Like I know that King James II was King James VII of Scotland, so, this leads me to wonder, when Prince Charles, Prince of Wales, takes the Throne, will he be King Charles the II of Australia, or King Charles of Australia? As the previous King Charles of England was before Australia even existed? Like, I know he'll be Charles II of England, I haven't looked into if he'll get different numbers from other countries in the UK though, but what will his number be for Australia and why?
Also, do the Commonwealth countries use the numbering from England? Scotland? Ireland? Wales? Or does the Monarch pick what they are known as in the Commonwealth realm?
Genuinely curious as to the answer and the history of WHY that is the answer.
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