I ask because I've noticed the majority of posts in European daytime go quite unnoticed, while the most popular posts often featuring on /r/all are posted around US daytime. So could anyone clarify on demographics?

I'm drunk as fuck and went to get a glass of water and thought about how hundreds of thousands of ancient soldiers able to get water?

I've scoured both previous posts on here, and on the internet in general about the languages spoken in the crusader states in the 12th century. I saw a previous answer on here that intrigued me. It said that some of the 2nd or later generations of Christian nobles knew how to speak Arabic. I wonder if a knight from a holy order or someone serving under the various crusader nobles, would be likely to know Arabic well enough to hold a conversation (more than just asking for a price of various goods or other generic tasks). The knight in my scenario can either be born in the Levant or spent more than 10 years there.

I'm also very interested to know if local Muslims would learn European languages spoken by the Christian pilgrims and ruling classes (mainly some form of French I assume). I am especially interested to know if a local hostile soldier to the crusader states would have an understanding with any European language. The soldier's background doesn't matter, he could be a noble, former trader, or a peasant. The soldier can serve under whoever, even Saladin, but I don't want to limit my question to Saladin's army as I don't know where Saladin raised the bulk of his army, though I suspect it was done mostly in Egypt or in areas where there is little contact with Europeans, and thus unlikely to speak the language.

So in short, I'm mostly interested to know if there is a chance that Christian and Muslim strangers could speak to each other.

Good book recommendations on the crusader states are also welcome.

I once read that the leaders/royalty of each country were actually related to each other. What happened to these families after world war 1. Were these families still in power in WWII? Are they still around today?

My friends and I were talking about characters for a Samurai game we were playing and one of my friends talked about applying the prong to the back of his katana. Now I know that there were many different styles of Tsuba and that it is a possibility. Even my sensei and I discussed how it could have been done, but we were wondering if there is any evidence of a katana (or other sword from Japan, but must be a sword) having a prong like attachment similar to the jitte or sai. (I also know of the anime with the character having something similar, I am concerned with only historical accuracy.)

I keep seeing this statement "Vikings made their women take care of their finances because they thought math was witchcraft" and can't find any proof to back it up. Does any one know about this?

please and thank you!

I admit total Victory was a near thing but total Conquest seems to have been impossible, since it would have required that those territories had not have any revolt from the subjugated people, and while elitist appointments are good for the empire, the fact that a sea dispersed territory could be controlled by what was essentially a land empire seems to be very hard to believe, so was the sea one of the reasons Persians could not properly defeat them in war, as contrary to a single battle where the Persians seemed to have the upper hand?

[deleted]

[deleted]

I've read multiple sources (one being Antony Beevor's 'Berlin') of the Russian advance towards Germany and how that once a town had been liberated/conquered by the red army then many accounts of rape occur. Mostly towards German women but occasionally even Russian women.

I ask as there was a photo posted in r/oldschoolcool of a female Russian sniper, who was killed while fighting in East Prussia, and it got me thinking of the stories that i had read.

I choose these two civlizations since they are my favorite ones but anything on Rome and Mesopotamia is good too. I know that temples in ancient Egypt weren't for congregation. So then how did peasants in their day to day life pray and worship their divinities? Did they join their hands and get down on their knees like today's Christians? How important were the temples for the common people, and did everyone have some kind of statue of their patron god of their household in their homes to whom they would give offerings? Any answers on how the common people of ancient Mesopotamia, Egypt, Greece, and Rome worshiped their gods is welcome. Thanks.

Once the Corsairs/Privateers have beaten their opponent and taken the ship... what then? I have read that they were required to go through a trial to confirm that they had the right to take the ship (to distinguish them from pirates) and only after do they get prize money. My big questions are:

How did they get the captured ship back to port? Would they go with the ship/would the Captain be required for the "trail" bit, or do they continue sailing and just get their prize money later? How did they get the money once it was determined they were rightfully owed it, and who paid them?

Basically in Rome 2: Total War there's a unit called Sobek cultists who wear crocodile hides. Which i find really strange cause they worshiped crocodiles as far i know, Is there some sort of historical precedent to them wearing crocodile hide (not the fighting as part of the army part, I'm 99% sure that isn't true) or did CA just want to make a cool looking Egyptian crocodile dude?

There are tons of them with a lot of upvotes and comments but when you go in there's nothing but [removed] and [deleted] all over the place. It is very annoying to not being able to know if the question has actually been properly answered at all.

TIL that Wisconsin allows it's citizens to drink at any age as long as the parents say it's okay.

In 1984 the National Minimum Drinking Age Act raised the drinking age to 21 I thought federal law superseded national law (I'm not American so I could be wrong) not the other way around. What is the historical precedence for a state being allowed to supersede federal law?

If this question sounds too much like trivia please feel free to remove it and I'll attempt at rephrasing it.

Thank you to any who answer :)

I asked this last year but didn't get a single response, hopefully this time the good people of AskHistorians will have some insight. Did the British have a substantial force in the colonies before the Revolutionary War or did they rely mostly on boats bringing troops over? Also if there was a substantial presence what would their role have been in the day to day lives of colonials?

A movie I just watched showed a compact cavalry formation, in the midst of a charge, being showered with arrows. I could imagine a horse being taken out by missile fire, and the cavalry behind it hitting the downed horse, toppling over, and so forth, resulting in sort of a horse "pileup." Was this ever an issue with cavalry?

It is also possible that I am vastly underestimating the maneuverability of these horses.