Iirc the Carthaginian identity, culture, city etc was destroyed and as a distinct people they ceased to exist which sounds like genocide but genocide is more than just the end result right? It's also intent but it seems like the Romans intended to destroy the Carthaginians.

When looking at drawings and pictures depicting medieval japanese warriors I noticed that they don't have shields. Also when reading about the use of weapons in medieval Japan, I found no mention of shields.

Were shields not used in medieval japanese warfare and if not why?

I went to a Catholic high school, and a lot of the Church history class was about why Protestants are wrong. He definitely told this story in a kind of pejorative way - suggesting that Luther's ideas all belonged in the place he thought of them.

Thinking about it myself, I figured that maybe if a ship went through a big storm before coming to shore they would warn the people that live in the surrounding area, but that doesn't seem quite right. Was it just random chance that they didn't get destroyed or was there a way to know if something was coming besides the obvious watching from a tower?

Wikipedia states

The First Emperor also arrogated the first-person Chinese pronoun 朕 (OC *lrəm’, mod. zhèn) for his exclusive use

with a footnote stating

This eventually prompted the development of the current pronoun 我 (wǒ, "I") from an earlier word meaning 'body'.

Here are the chief questions:

• How did the emperor / how was the emperor able to enforce such a rule across his vast empire, to such a thorough extent that all Chinese variants after the Qin dynasty no longer use 朕? Forcing linguistic changes seems like something that would be difficult, especially given the slow communication of the time.
• How long did it take for the old pronoun to fall out of use?

Did certain royal families, dynasties, and noble lords have their own "mottos"? I always assumed that something like this existed, but I've only ever seen anything like it depicted in fiction, never historical texts.

Was anyone allowed to go to university in USSR? I know about 7 (later 8) and 9 (later 10) years schools, and about only 10 years schools' graduated could attend university, but I wish to know if anyone graduating from that schools could have gone to university, if he/she actually wanted to, or if there was some sort of selection, like today in most western countries. I'm also very interested in any form of sexual discrimination, and social or economic discrimination, because I know these things should have not been important, but I also know bribes existed there, such as in any other place. If there was any selection, I wish to know on what basis did it happen, and when did it happen: was anyone able to go to 9 years schools, or were they already selected? I searched on the internet and on this sub, but I didn't find any precise information. If there is an already answered similar question, please let me know. Thanks in advance.

In every language I've had experience with, there is a "reply" to sneezing. In English we say "bless you", while other languages wish the sneezer good health, a long life, and other things. At what point and for what reason did "replying" to a sneeze become the norm, and why didn't it happen with other bodily functions?

They're always white in films, but wouldn't they have been more olive skinned? And if they were brown, how did they turn white in only 2,000 years of living in a cooler (mostly European) climate?

I have this question for my history class but I'm struggling around "comparative development" and can't find anything on it. If you don't mind clearing up/rewording the question for me I'd appreciate it.

Hello everyone! I'm interested in learning about music history, particularly Western for now, but I'm not sure where to begin. I have had a couple of experiences with some pretty awful, mind-numbing textbooks, and I would like to avoid spending time and money on a book that I don't get much out of, so I would really appreciate any recommendations.

I imagine any book about music history will have to deal with this in some capacity, but I would also love a book that touches on music theory alongside the various historical movements in music.

Any recommendations would be greatly appreciated, thank you.

Were they treated as whites? Was anti-semitism a factor? As I understand it, they were mostly Lithuanian in origin. Was that a factor in their social acceptance/lack of it?

Anecdotally, I have a Jewish friend, raised in SA but left in the 70s because he says the secret police were after him. He told me that there were quite a lot of Jews fighting against apartheid, but also quite a lot that helped the government. Is that true?

so in medieval 2 total war there is a "the world is round event" and in the notification it said that there were people that supported this theory but were burned at the stake as heretics, im curious if this was true, btw yes i know people have been saying the world is round since ancient greece im just wondering how many people believed it in the medieval ages

So, I may be on the wrong thought process here but..

I seem to remember a few years back a discussion/article/something about the fact that Victoria’s parents may not be who its said they are because she either DOES has Haemophilia or DOESN’T have it and that whichever one it is means that her parentage can’t be what is said to be because of the genetics to do with the disease.

Am I right? Does anyone remember this discussion anywhere?