I ask the third question because the Danes had a score to settle with Germany, over Schleswig Holstein.

Curious if we have any textual evidence from the Mayas or shortly after contact with the Europeans about eunuchs existing or how they were treated in America. Or transgender people in general

I'm just wondering how the average person in the 1700s/1800s would tell the difference between a pirate ship and a ship belonging to a country's navy?

This may mean nothing, but the more I speak with baby boomers around me, and the more they pinpoint the 1970s as the decade where "many of the old ways were lost".

At first I thought "70s" may just be shorthand, but the repetition is intriguing. Could there be a generational explanation for this? Most of the people born in 1890 (in their 20s during WWI) may have passed away during that period, after all.

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EDIT: By "Europe", I mean Western Europe, and most precisely the countries I've been in: roughly Germany, France, Spain and Italy

What I’m interested in here is the process by which it was decided to rebuild the domestic areas that burned down.

Presumably large swathes of burned London were owned by individuals who derived money from rent…this may be wrong, of course, but if it’s right, were they just able to say after the fire, “this area housed X number of families, so I’ll just build accommodation for that number”? Or did the land change hands? Was temporary accommodation put up for those who lost their homes? Were the new houses built quickly because there were few regulations, or did it take ages because those who’d usually build houses had lost their homes…?

I’m essentially asking about building regulations in the Restoration era. History eh? Can’t beat it.

If a Jew could avoid forced labor or even death by giving up their religion (or even pretending to), did millions of Jews bravely choose not to do that and rather endure through the ridiculous oppression?

Or was it that they'd be persecuted anyway even if they said they'd give up their faith

Towards the end of his book “The Christian Century,” C.R. Boxer references an attempt by the Portuguese to reestablish relations with Japan in 1640 by sending a ship with the purpose of paying off their outstanding debts. The Japanese responded by killed several of the ship’s crew and sending only a few back to tell them no more ships are welcome.

The only other reference to this I can find is a quick reference to it in a talk by Prof. Alec Ryrie for Gresham College on YouTube.

Is there any more information about this ship? The story sounds incredible and I have found only a few pages discussing the high level details.

I work at a highschool and see a lot of students dressed in clothes that looks straight out of a 1970s fashion catalog (amoung various other decades). How prevalent has this been throughout history? Were teenagers in 1870 trying to to look like women in 1815? Or was this seen as a bad thing as they didn't have the latest fashion. I would love to see instances of this in history!

Essentially is this location a motif present in other medieval literature, is it a lost name for a real place, or do we just not know enough about the reference?

While I am enjoying my studies of the medieval period, many of the books covering this broad subject focus mostly on Western Europe.

I would like to know what are the best books for a beginner with limited knowledge of the period. I would prefer if the books are one-volume.

I would like a book that covers the history of the Byzantine empire, and maybe one that touches on the surrounding areas like the Balkans and the Middle East.

I want to learn more about the advent of slavery and the root causes for my own personal edification. I do understand that conquest resulted in the enslavement of the conquered, but I could not help but wonder what if there are ones who sold themselves to slavery because of their impoverished condition - they did not have the basic necessities for survival and thus had to sell themselves to continually meet this need. Is there any evidence of this particular kind of enslavement in the ancient world, if so could you provide a reputable source because I want to read more about it. Thanks!

The left wing infighting between the various republican militias in the spanish civil war is infamous and has become apart of mainstream political humor.Thus,I would like to know whether there were incidents or squabbles among those on the nationalists and why they weren't as severe as that of the Republicans

EDIT: To add more details:

Let's assume 3 different scenarios:

1. I fire into the air to let them know I am armed.

2. I fire and injure someone. Do I now have evidence for self-defense? Bob just coincidently got shot in the shoulder last night . . .

3. I fire and kill a Klan member. I just pissed off the entire town, but I was well within my rights to defend myself and family. Am I arrested?

I'm currently reading Cassandra Peterson's memoir, Cruelly Yours, Elvira, and in it she discusses her time as a showgirl at length. It made me wonder - how did this specific form of entertainer come to be and how did they catch on? How did the styles of costuming develop? Did they become more or less concealing as time went on? And did standards for their looks or behavior change over time?

Peterson's description of the shows themselves in her time sounds a lot like the Ziegfeld Follies, but there's a pretty big stretch of time between the end of the Follies and the start of the Las Vegas strip.

Spelt as 'voodoo', it is a common trope in 19th and 20th-century fiction as a religion of cannibalism and human sacrifice. Were these practices ever actually part of Voodoo belief? And if not, then why did this association come about?