According to what I've heard and read recently, it seems to me that China's communist nature is somewhat illusory, since there is large private investment, even from foreigners, and the stock market seems to follow the same pattern as the US one.

How did China go from being a communist country to having the mildly intervensionist economic policy that it appears to have now?

Promoting the Aryan race, what would the plan have been? Did Asian countries somehow fit into the Aryan race or did Hitler make some sort of exception? If not how did he justify teaming up with a non-aryan race

Are there any records that indicate reactions to such news?

Edit: Sorry for the vague question and thank you so much for the wide array of answers

Just what the title says. Does anyone have any good books on Anglo-Saxon England particularly during the 8th-10th centuries. Also does anyone have any good books after the Norman conquest and how England changed. Thanks for all your help.

During the course of the Second World War some 3.5 million Soviet POWs died at the hands of the Nazis. A significant proportion of these were killed during the early stages of the war, following a sequence of mass surrenders as the Wehrmacht surged forwards during Operation Barbarossa; huge numbers of men were placed in temporary open-air camps where they died of starvation, disease, and exposure.

Despite the staggering numbers involved, the names and locations of these camps are almost entirely unfamiliar to laypersons in the West. Having been seized by curiosity I have done some basic research but have got nowhere, and I am struck by this considering the sheer scale of these events.

Can anyone shed some light upon this in terms of explaining exactly where these men died - and perhaps offer some insight as to why there isn't the same familiarity with such locations as with the extermination camps which were developed later?

I was thinking especially of the acting in dramas. It's particularly noticeable when male actors do it. The way Meryl Streep or maybe David Duchovny would speak when acting in the early 90's. It always seems like a distinctive style to me and I was wondering what it was.

I don't know whether to post here or r/askscience, but I'll start here.

The story of Apollo 13 is mesmerizing, but behind all the exaggeration and fable how unlikely was the crews survival after the catastrophe on that mission?

Was their survival thanks to the actions of the crew aboard and NASA (like the creation of the unorthodox air scrubber), or were there any instances of pure luck or barely controllable variables in which the dice were rolled in their favour? Also, if all the problems could have been handled without luck but by rational thought and the tools available, how short were the time constraints during these problems and did they serve as a very real chance of death?

Not sure if this question belongs here, or if I should use a meta tag. (If I need the tag, let me know and I'll repost with it.)

Anyway, it seems like our historical knowledge is constantly evolving. Things we thought to be true, we decide aren't. Things that we thought weren't true, we decide are. What's the best way to determine what books would have the current prevailing theories/knowledge? (Aside from checking the book list here, of course. I'm not sure how often it's updated.) I'm always hesitant to buy books even a few years old just because I don't know if the information inside has been displaced.

So, I put the "NSFW" just in case, given what I'm going to ask about. To get to the point, were Viking women allowed to remove a male's genitals if she were mistreated? If so, what were the circumstances under which such a punishment could be enacted?

To give some context, a friend on Facebook shared a screenshot from a Tumblr page making the claim. I did some brief "research" (read: Google), but found no mentions of any such punishment. Plenty of other ways woman could act in the face of unwanted attention, but nothing like that. So, just curious: is my friend wrong?

Thanks!

I tried to search if a similar question was asked already but i found only 'why Poland gets attacked continously' and 'why UK and France did not declare war on the Soviet Union since Soviet Union attacked Poland too'. I read the answers of those questions, that are helpful, but are not addressing my question.

Poland was the diplomatic turning point pre WW2, thanks to the attack to Poland, WW2 started. Now after the war was clear that Poland would have been under the Soviet sphere of influence but i do not get why the Allies just allowed Stalin to move westwards the Polish territory. Not that i'm happy that Poland grabbed more Germany or Germany lose more territory, but if i remember correctly the moving of the Polish borders westwards caused a net loss for Poland. Poland was bigger before ww2 than after.

And while, somehow, Germany had to pay for ww2 (meh), why Poland too? Apart for considering baltic states and other countries swallowed by USSR. I focus on Poland because was the starting point of ww2 and UK and France were its allies, while its seems was more or less treated as a 'exchange body' at the end of the war. So i wonder why UK and France let this happens instead of saying something like 'USSR, you could own the detached German territory or form another puppet state (like the Kalininingrad oblast) but leave Poland as it was pre ww2, even if under your sphere of influence'.

I'm thinking specifically of England when I ask this, but I'd actually be interested in the nobility of other countries too, assuming it's different.

I am teaching a parasitology class and the textbook states "The fall of Rome, starting in approximately 400 AD, ushered in the Dark Ages, during which Parasitology, like other sciences, largely regressed. Although Chinese and Arabic texts from the Middle Ages contains some references to helminths, real advancement in our understanding of parasites would not occur until the eighteenth century."

This seems like a gross simplification to me and I am looking for some resources (other than what I can find on wikipedia) to supplement this view. I want to use this as a teachable moment about how scientific history often shapes our view of science. Unfortunately my own knowledge of global scientific history is sadly lacking having been trained and taught from similiar textbooks.

Was European disease "which preceded" European contact the culprit? or something else? i'm interested in both the best researched causes and all the attendant figures. What was the population pre-crash? Did percentages of population drops in various regions across N. America vary? Like overhwleming drops along the east coast and more moderate drops on the plains?

Did any particular lifestyles seem to get hit more? Did nations that were very nomadic for example get hit harder or less hard than more sedentary ones?

Not sure if this is the right place to ask, but seemed like maybe? Looking specifically for stuff around religion/mythology but daily life stuff would be neat too.

I understand that through the 18th century there was an extensive battle to find whether copyright was a limited right or perpetual, but how much could an author make in that time, and when did writing become the sole profession for an author to live comfortably?