I did a search on this and didn't find this question (maybe I worded it wrong).

In Muslim countries it is accepted that alcohol is illegal. Yes foreigners drink (and I'm sure some Muslims sneak), but for the most part it seems to have been a success to remove alcohol from their lives.

• Why did they accept it?
• Are they just more understanding? Is it because they could die for drinking?
• Wouldn't that mean harsher penalties is a successful deterrent?
• If it is more successful why do people deny the death penalty works?

We know it was a huge failure in America and Canada.

• Are Europeans just not willing to listen to reason?
• Are we just naturally aching to break the law or maybe to rebel?
• When they realized it was a failure, why did it take so long to repeal the law?

I know that is a lot of questions wrapped into one, but I feel they all lead back to the root question. (Yes, I watched an episode of "The Making of the Mob" tonight).

Hello, I have a question regarding some of the American aboriginal tribes.

So, having researched the group of peoples known as the Anishinaabe(g), which includes most of the Great Lakes' tribes of Amerindians (The Ojibwe, Odaawaa, Potawotami, Nipissing, Algonquin, and Mississaugas), I'm left with a peculiar question.

According to their own oral history, which in this case seems plausible (as they all speak very closely related languages and genes, and are in the same general area with similar cultures), these peoples split from a single population at some point at the Atlantic coast and migrated inland, sundering along the way.

My question, simple as it is, is- when did this potentially happen? Maybe linguistic clues could give us an idea, or some sort of archaeology. I dunno. Either way, it'd be really interesting to have some sort of timeframe.

All I've found on it is a sketchy claim, supposedly from a Potawotami elder, that the formation of the Council of the Three Fires, a sort of confederation between the Michiganian tribes, was around 796 AD. But.. given that the birch bark scrolls do not contain specific writing, or dating, I'm not sure about the accuracy of that. That would also put their sundering pretty far back, considering that their languages are basically dialects of the same language.

Anyway, any sort of information regarding this would be great, from a Native American historian or just a researcher. Thanks for reading, and thanks in advance for the help!

So, as most Russians, all of my family served in World War II, it being what you might call a "people's war". And throughout my childhood, I always considered it a war in which we were indisputably "in the right", authoritarian political repression not withstanding.

Henceforth it came as a tremendous shock to learn of the mass rape that occurred during liberation, something not at all reflected in the mainstream media (Russian or otherwise). It was overwhelming (first and only time that a historic event had a significant emotional impact on me) reading the various, intricately detailed accounts, and swallowing the Wikipedia cited figure of an estimated 2 million victims. I had longsince been numbed to accounts of mass executions carried out by various organizations, genocides, famines, but this was heavy.

A friend assured me that "rape is a part of war" and that there's nothing surprising about that figure. The explanation, as posed by my friend, was that there were simply more bodies involved in the Eastern front than in the West. As with the body count and severity of the destruction, everything that occurred on the Eastern front was an up-scaled reflection of what occurred in the West.

So what I'm curious about is some statistics: one in how many servicemen in the Red Army were involved in rape? In the liberation force of Berlin, etc? ...and some further details about the liberation process such as: how quickly did the leadership crackdown on the perpetrators of the mass rape? How quickly were basic needs met in Soviet liberated areas (food, water, electricity, public services)?

I'm also somewhat interested in how female servicemen reacted to the mass rape.

Crude similarities between World War 1 and 2 I can think of: relatively high rate of fire rifles, machine guns, artillery, tanks (barely), and somewhat developed navies. To me these similarities would mean the two wars take similar paths strategically.

Of course WW1 did not have much of an air scene at all, but I don't think that matters much when thinking about trench warfare. France even seemed ready to go with slow drawn out warfare with their maginot line.

I'm just guessing the reason there wasn't much trench warfare was the advent of Germany's blitzkrieg. It just didn't give the opposing sides enough time to dig in. Was that the intention?

We always hear about the US imposing sanctions on countries like Iran and Russia, but has it ever gone the other way?

Hello everyone, I'm sorry but I can't be extremely clear with this question. I went over this topic in history class a while back and recently started thinking about it again. As the title states, there was once an ancient text, if I remember correctly, like the bible, which was regarded as law/religion for a very long period of time, until it was found to be fake.

Would be great if someone knew the name or a vague idea of what it might be. Now I know this is a very broad question, and might even refer to many ancient texts out there, but I'm sure I will know if I see the name.

I'm listening to 'Thor's Angel's' by Dan Carlin, after listening to Punic Nightmare (essentially 100BC-1000AD). Apparently, France was controlled first by the Gauls, then by the Romans, and then the Franks.

Apparently, the Franks were proto-Germans. How did they become what we know as the French- a totally different linguistic group?

And if so, did they document it?

It never ceases to amaze me how old and varied ancient trade routes were. Could someone give me an overview of what was happening between the indigenous tribes of Britain, amongst themselves and with the continental mainland before and around the time of the Roman invasion? Diplomacy, treaties, trade? I'm particularly interested in the Brigantes if that helps narrow things down.

I'm a high school teacher developing a cool project for an elective that I teach centering on the Cold War. Your answers will be of great assistance to me!

What are some buildings/structures/institutions that typified life in East or West Berlin? What are some buildings/structures/institutions which held the most significant historical meaning due to the events unfolding there. I've already considered adding, the wall (of course), checkpoint charlie, Tempelhof, Kaufhaus des Westens, and schools.

My students and I are going to be working on an ambitious project to create a model of Cold War era Berlin including many features that make it clear how life was quite different for those living in the East as opposed to the West. Thanks so much for providing me some good ideas.

Hello Historians! I currently work full-time for an Insurance company and got my Bachelors in Business Administration about 6 years ago. I've always been interested in History and I'm thinking about going back to school for what I'm calling a for-me degree in History through an online program (so I can keep working full-time). Even if I never get a job in the history field (though that would be ideal), what could I do with a History degree on a personal enrichment level? Or what are some job in the field of history that would be potentially available? {If there is a better subreddit that this would be suited for please let me know}

I recently watched Django, and in the dinner scene, LeoCaps says that "Under Mississippi law she is my property, and I can do anything I want with my property". Im wondering if there were any limits to this, and if there weren't, what was considered a no-no back then.

Thanks

Obviously, quiet is the wrong word for a war, but there had to have been times in the war where nothing of significance happened. Four years is a long time for a war, and everyone needs breaks, even a bunch of militaristic Europeans.

I'm fascinated with language, and I'd like to know when this term was used to describe anything other than carnal relations with one's mother. People nowadays use it so interchangeably, it may as well mean 'person'. When did this become the norm?

I know that the Romans had amazing roads and beautifully ordered settlements in grid patterns but supposedly the capital city was a sprawling mess that burned down half a dozen times and was rebuilt with varying levels of haphazard planning. Marc Duncan in his "History Of Rome" podcast claimed that the streets were like "spaghetti" and were the "secret shame of the Empire".

If this is true, how did people find their way to specific residences or places? Was there an address system or did people work entirely off of landmarks?

The time period I'm most curious about is the 2nd Punic War, so if you can put a general date on your info, the closer it is to 218 to 201 B.C. the better.

To clarify, what are the governments that exist today that have existed (for the most part) in the same form for the longest amount of time?

I have been researching German history during the 19th century recently, but none of the books I've read explain why the Franco-Prussian war led to a "unified" Germany in a way that I can understand other than that patriotism was high at that point. Can anyone explain this or at least point me in the direction of some sources that will help me out? Thanks in advance.