Why did Argentina and Chile keep on switching standard time zones back and forth every once in a while between their geographically "right" time zones (respectively, 4 and 5 hours behind Greenwich) and the "wrong" time zones that are one hour ahead (respectively, 3 and 4 hours behind Greenwich) before deciding ultimately on the latter? Were there political and/or economic reasons behind these decisions? (After all, neighbouring countries like Peru, Bolivia, Paraguay, and Brazil fall under the geographically "right" time zones.)

As a Brit, I dont know much about American history. What I do know is that the pilgrim fathers were Puritans, but were only a small proportion of early European colonists, the majority I assume were Catholic Spanish colonists. Later, the British Colonies would have been CofE (Episcopalian) wouldnt they?

But this leads to some questions. How exactly did Christianity spread so rapidly and so differently in form than that of European Christians? (I believe this has something to do with the colonisation of the mid west but where did the whole "Fire and Brimstone" stuff come from and how did it hold such sway?)

How did Puritanism and Puritanical views become so prevalent (no or little alcohol, issues with dancing, banning books etc) when they would have been a tiny proportion of settlers set against Catholics and more liberal Episcopalians?

Why did the practice and importance of religion not diminish in the USA as it has in Europe, particularly in countries such as the UK, where the country is officially Christian but is also one of the most Secular countries in the world? (I think this may have something to do with the cold war?)

Its always bugged me that the USA has such extreme and loud Christian hardliners in a country responsible for more science and technology than any other, which, while not mutually exclusive, usually leads to diminished practising of faith. With luck you can provide me with the answers.

Happy late Christmas everyone!

Was there any proof that the Knights templar were guilty of the crimes they were accused of or where they charges made by the king of France due to the enormous debt he had accumulated to the order? How did a group so respected get turned on almost overnight?

I hope this sort of question is allowed. Apologies if it isn't.

Hello! I am a British student (or, LAD, as is we are usually referred to) and I am currently studying for my GCSEs, including one in recent History.

We have been learning about the Suffragettes, and it has been really interesting and horrible in equal parts to hear how Women were oppressed in Victorian society, and how the Men and Women of the Suffragists and -gettes fought for the Woman's vote, and equal standing in parliament.

So, I started thinking; did any movement of this type exist before the 19th/20th century? Were there, like, Tudor or Medieval feminists? Or did the concept only begin during the later years?

Thanks very much for your answers, and have a good 2015. :)

Not sure how to expand upon the title, but I'm interested to know why it is the early United States government figured it would be simpler to build an entire new city for the capital of the country as opposed to simply naming another already-existing major city the capital and going from there.

For example, Philadelphia (which was selected as the temporary capital for ~10ish years) -- why was this not selected as a permanent capital?

Thanks

Consider the mocking of the gods (for example: Zeus was almost imaged as a sex addict) and the hate speech to Augustus at the end of his last book.

Why was it allowed, why wasn't he hated by the godloving Romans? Or weren't they?

In his book "A history of the near east" Marc Van De Mieroop states "For about seventy years, this dynasty governed Babylonia and adjacent regions to the east, using an elaborte bureaucracy that produced an exorbitant number of written documents. Virtually no period of ancient Near Eastern history presents the historian with such an abundance and variety of documentation. Indeed, even in all of the ancient histories of Greece and Rome, there are few periods where a similar profusion of textual material is found." So my question why is this? Is it possible that there are just more archeological findings from that period or did the third dynasty of Ur really produce that much written material?

Sorry, had this discussion with some friends, and they wouldnt stop coming up with false arguments about why they hate Ataturk. Did some research and I can't really see anything wrong with what he did

From storyline to weaponry and anything in between

Edit: thank you two for the answers, I read through them both and had an age old question of mine answered, again thanks!

The title of the question is bad so let me expand below.

So Prince Charles of the United Kingdom is the Duke of Cornwall, Andrew is the Duke of York, and so on and so forth.

When Charles dies his title of Duke of Cornwall will pass to William but Andrew's title will pass to his daughter (I think) or some other heir.

So my question is, if William has multiple children and becomes king, and needs to give them each a title, what does he do if there are no titles left to give?

While it's getting better a lot of (older) people are still shocked when they see naked people on TV. Talking casually about sex is still a major taboo to a lot of folks.

My question how did this happen, it seems so unnaturally to me, as sex is one of the most normal and natural things for humans to have.

Was it always taboo, or was it the fault of Christianity?

*these

Were Indians or other Asians or any other ethnic people that were not white also grouped alongside the African Americans?

It's seems to me highly improbably that she really had that big of an army. But how do historians get that sort of numbers? And furthermore can you tell a bit more about her army: the structure, the logistics?

By the way, not advocating war. In fact, could it be possible that is there were not any rules of war, we would be less willing to engage in war?

The internet is really hard to get consistency when you type in "Bible". And how did (if they did) evolve into the Jewish culture of that time?

I'm well aware of the popularity of West German TV programming in the DDR, despite attempts by authorities to crack down on it. Were there any examples of the reverse being true? Did any East German programs achieve popularity (cult or otherwise) in West Germany?

Back when archers were commonly used in war how coordinated were the arrows shot? Was there a guy signaling everyone to fire at once or did they just do there own thing? Also why not just shoot deep at the king if you were able to wouldn't that be in your best interest?