I've read the many places in England that end with "chester" were originally roman camps.
Also I see caster (Lancaster), xeter (Wroxeter,Exeter), cester (Glocester,Worcester) (maybe more?).
My question is: Who gave them these names?
These places all seem to have longer and different Roman names. For example "Colchester" in wikipedia is listed as: "Camulodunum" and "Colonia Victricensis".
I assume these were Romano-British place-names that stuck around after the Romano-British were overrun, but how come the variations? And how come there are so many of them?
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Wondered this today whilst walking around the ancient Egypt exhibition at the British Museum. Do they move around the globe a lot? Some of the pieces such as pillars and statues are easily 20ft tall so I imagine it would be a big and delicate task.
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A fairly innocent post to mark the 75th anniversary of the German invasion of Poland has just blown up into a 300+ candidate for /r/SubredditDrama.
I'd quite like somewhere to be able to post that kind of interesting tidbit and have it be followed by the kind of enlightened, erudite and non-drama discussion that Ask Historians specialises in.
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I remember reading in my Roman history classes that Julius Caesar had to modify the calender after he became dictator to get it into alignment with the seasons, and further modification was needed in later centuries to make it the 365 1/4th calender we have today.
How accurate were calenders in eastern civilizations? What did Chinese, Koreans and Japanese use, and were they forced to adjust it multiple times?
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This borders on being a AskSocialScience question, but how often do tribes successfully sue the US for having violated its treaties? Is there a legal reason they can't, or is it just that everyone tacitly acknowledges that the US is not going to cede territory etc.?
What I'm getting at is, grossly oversimplified, did the US violate it's own laws and is there a remedy available (at least on paper) to its victims, or was the dispossession entirely legal? I imagine most of it was "legitimate" (meaning within the bounds of the law) but if we break treaties, is there a legal consequence for it?
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e.g. during world war two, thanks
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Like who actually put the pen on paper and wrote it down? Did the founding fathers think of who had the best handwriting or something?
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Currently watching his series on "Barbarians". I've also watched his series on the Crusades. Just wondering if there's a general consensus on how these stack up.
EDIT: JONES, Terry JONES
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Did they gradually merge with a new dynasty or were they deposed suddenly?
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Say I'm an avid outdoorsman living in Russia and I want to go on a 5 day backpacking hike. What were my options? What kind of permits would I have needed, if any? Was off-trail travel allowed like it is in the US?
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For example, the name Ericson comes from "son of Eric," so why did Eric's grandson take the name? At what point did the name Smith switch from being a title for a blacksmith to a common name? Someone over in /r/history mentioned the Dutch being forced to adopt a surname after Napoleon's invasion of the Netherlands, are there any other examples of a legal mandate like that?
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Any events that almost ended mankind's journey to the now? If so, how did our ancestors avoid it?
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For example, Christmas and Halloween are always on specific dates (Dec 25, Oct 31), but other holidays (such as Labor day, Memorial day, Easter, Thanksgiving) aren't on set dates, like how Labor day is the first Monday of September. Why is this?
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