Despite a decisive victory for Britain in north America, they still allowed the French and natives (to a lesser degree) to keep their own language, religion and legal system. What motivations were there for this appeasement? Why not try to assimilate them?

I've heard of the Lancashire Cotton Famine, but having been in a local museum the other day the part on Cotton mills completely missed out anything about it, so I was wondering what the effects of the American Civil War on Lancashire, as well as the rest of the country, and what differing views did the population have?

Hello Dear Historians of Reddit,

I've been reading up on the Franco-Prussian War, and the era surrounding it. So much of the events of this time seems to be shaped by "public opinion" (most famously both Prussian/German outrage at the release of the Ems Dispatch).

Going deeper, the newspapers of the time (at least the German ones that I have been able to access, my French isn't good enough to research there) talk about "the patience of the people having reached an end", etc.

We know how public opinion works today, how it is influenced by modern media, etc. But, how did this work in an era where the only news source was newspapers?

I haven't found specific numbers, but as far as I remember, general literacy in Europe was more or less a product of World War I. So, how many people would even have been able to read newspapers in the 1870s? Would "public opinion" have been limited, due to literacy rates, to the urban middle class and above?

Also, what were newspaper circulations like? And would events have been discussed in beer halls, etc. as well?

Sorry, that's a lot of questions. I guess, in summarizing: how was public opinion shaped in the era of the Franco-Prussian War, and how did it really influence political decisions, such as going to war?

I've read a little about Darwin's long-term health issues, and the treatment he sought for them. What I want to know is what are currently considered to be the most likely causes of his ill health. Have there been any theories about it which have gone out of fashion? Is there a single, widely accepted theory? Or is the cause still wide open to speculation?

Hey guys I'm new to this subreddit. With all the tension happening in middle-east I started doing some reading on the concurrent rise of Arab Nationalism and Zionism in the early 20th century. Unfortunately, almost all the online sources that I could find were biased one way or the other (shocking! I know). I am specifically looking for reliable and neutral literature on the relationship (or lack thereof) between the founders of the Muslim Brotherhood movement and National Socialist German Workers' Party. Online sources are very much appreciated. There are some "peer reviewed" articles online but they are written more like propaganda pieces than academic research.

I know this is a hot topic but please leave your opinions and politics out of it.

Thanks guys.

Why did they continue to use bronze for helmets, was it cheaper or lighter? It seems like bronze would be much less resistant to attacks from iron weaponry and your head is quite a vital thing to protect.

I understand that the Levant had had many rulers of many different cultural and religious backgrounds.... Can someone give just some raw data, no opinions like I keep running into on the web, starting with the first known inhabitants of the area. Of who controlled it. I understand the area was under Ottoman rule from 7th century - 20th. But I just wanna see raw facts.

I have heard that it is the Greek word for gospel and means good news of military victory, though many websites i have looked at say it is merely good news. Is that so?

In North America, what was the highest population of Native American Indians ? Is there any idea when this was approximately?

Thank you

I just finished Ian Mortimer's 1415: Henry V's Year of Glory, and it seems that many noblemen asked for x amount of masses to be sung in their names or the names of others, usually at a specific church. I had a few questions, however, when Henry V himself asked for literally thousands (possibly into the tens of thousands - I can't remember) of masses to be sung after his death. Did a mass sung in someone's name differ from any other mass, or would all masses in England "count" towards the total? Was anyone in charge of ensuring that these masses actually happened? And did Henry V - or any noble who wanted masses sung, really - actually expect that the number of masses they requested would be sung, or was it, for lack of a better term, the thought that counted?

Now-a-days, we don't really blink at the idea of an allegedly virtuous hero casually murdering a bunch of Nazis or Terrorists or whatever. They seem like such cartoonish evil that we don't really consider them as more than cardboard villains. But in the 1920s and 30s, when pulp magazines were happening, Nazis presumably were just a foreign political party. So, when Doc Savage or the Shadow or someone like that needed a bunch of faceless, obviously evil goons to beat on, who did authors use? I'm sure 'savages' was a common one, but were there others?

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Why did Germans relocate to Russia primarily regarding the term during Catherine the Great's reign? How were Germans that relocated to Volga Region Russia treated? Any information about the exodus of the Germans to the US earlier than 1872? I've done quite a bit of research about this but I'd like more information and resources to learn more.

And where can I find more information about the book of Revelations and the Horsemen's association with it in general? I really just need a summary, but I didn't want to ask for that in fear of breaking any rules.

I'm wondering what the first interpretation was, and what the Horsemen's purposes were.

Did he(or if we don't know one way or the other could it be assumed?) have had a triumphal procession on his return to Italy, following the battle of Philippi?

I'm also wondering if he had a close friend or subbordinate, a right hand man who would always be at his side?

Lastly, if you have the time, an quick rundown of naming conventions and common names of the time could save me some time, but I'm sure I could find that information some other way so that last one isn't as important as the first two.

Although my historical background is primarily the Weimar Republic, I have been branching out more and more into the reigning period of the Nazis as well as Mussolini's Italy. As I start to look into the development of their ally Imperial Japan, the already perhaps loose definitions of Fascism becomes even more problematic.

I know this is a very broad question, but what major ways did Imperial Japan or 'State Shintoism' differ in ideology from Nazi Germany or Fascist Italy and is it fair at all to say Japan was a fascist state?