If I recall correctly, FDR hailed from an affluent family, from the state of New York, with the state of New York being a solidly Republican state, regarding presidential elections, throughout the 19th and 20th centuries (with the exception of its support for Woodrow Wilson in the election of 1916). Moreover, his cousin, president Theodore Roosevelt, was obviously a member of the Republican Party. Thus, his family would have presumably been affiliated with the Republican Party.

I had posed this question to my AP U.S. History teacher several years ago, in high school, and she asserted that FDR was a Democrat because Herbert Hoover had run for re-election in 1932 as the incumbent candidate from the Republican Party. Though it would be prudent for FDR to have run against Hoover for this reason—as FDR would likely have been precluded from garnering the nomination for the Republican Party, due to the establishment’s presumable support for the incumbent candidate—this assertion doesn’t seem veritable, as FDR also served as James Cox’s running mate in the election of 1920, and, therefore, had an enduring affiliation with the Democratic Party. So, why was FDR a member of the Democratic Party?

I recently heard from a family member, that it was possible in the case of death whilst serving in the German military during the Second World War, for the partner to marry them posthumously in order to get a military pension.

Does anyone have any more information on this please? How could it be monitored? Surely it would have been easy to fake. Would this be revoked upon entering a second marriage? Many thanks for your answers!

As a BA history student I am choosing a project about the crusades, however I want to write about the arabic side of the crusades. What would be some good sources for this research? I have currently ordered The Crusades: Islamic Perspectives by Carole Hillenbrand.

Thank you very much in advance!

Today there is a clear gap between both. But what about before the 40s?

I was curious what life was like as black man in Rome, as black man myself if I was teleported to Rome during fourth century AD would I be harrsed or treated as nonhuman?

Are they close relatives of the Frank's? Or do they trace their origins elsewhere?

Take for instance, the Inca or the Aztecs (I know they aren't really that old, relatively speaking). Would they have known about the peoples that had lived in South America before them extending back 200 hundred years, say? 500? 1000? The Aztecs were around from 1300 to 1521 so presumably some Aztec people living in 1521 would have a decent idea of what was going on in the area in 1300 right based on writings and oral histories, etc... But would they have any reliable knowledge about the people living right where they were in, say the 11th century?

I bring up South American civilizations only as an example. I'd be interested to hear about other regions as well...
Thanks in advance!

I am eager to learn more about the relationship between the two countries, which is why I’m asking for feedback (as well as any other sources you might suggest)

So water was something incredibly important for any city or frankly speaking any kind of civilization. And it has a tendency to flow downhill, meaning that you really have to either raise it or find water springs. I know the Romans had aqueducts that needed to slope really gently and also needed to find springs really far away, since Rome was on a plain.

​

So the question here is 'were there efforts to create water pumps' en masse to provide a city's needs, or even farmland? Like, say, either powered by the nearby river itself or by the wind, pumping water straight up from the underground aquifier.

Specifically subsaharan African countries. I'm aware that during the 17-1800's (I think) there were a lot of power struggles between European countries over who could colonise what area in Africa. North Africa probably has a larger white population I'm assuming partly because it is quite close to Europe, but the only other country I know of is South Africa. Why is this when almost every other country was also colonised to some degree?

Catholic doctrine and dogma can be quite specific (such as the nature of Jesus) and because the masses were conducted in Latin, a foreign language to most peasants, I would imagine that their knowledge of Christianity would be limited. But this seems to be contradicted by the demonstrations of intense religiosity on the part of many, such as pilgrimages . So, how much did the average peasant know about Christianity in the medieval period?

Hello everyone, hope you’re doing well. I was rewatching one of (the amazing) historia civilis videos on YouTube about the trial of King Charles and I was wondering why the monarchies of Europe didn’t stampede England after they deposed their king like that of what happened to the French during their revolution? Any info is appreciated! Thanks.

Hi. I'm currently writing a study on life of Olga of Kiev. Part of it should consist of icongraphy. I have a chronicle of John Skylitzes on my hand but to contrast I would also like to include the Radziwiłł letopis. Unfortunately I have not been successful in finding one neither online nor in paper. If anyone could point me towards an online source that would be great. Thanks.

[Repost for temporary lift of "no example-seeking questions" rule].

I've just learned about the Tangiers International Zone - and the subject is incredibly fascinating. As far as I understand it, this was, effectively, a free city created by an international impasse?

Does /r/AskHistorians have a book recommendation on the subject? I'm looking for something approachable by a non-professional, but a dense text would work too - assuming it's self-contained.

I'm just trying to learn more about a really horrible thing in Canada's history.

Were these wound down over time or did the seizures of children continue right to the bitter end? Did the government ever step in to help out the childrens/families? Did it become any easier to get your kids back or did rights of Indigenous parents improve as time went on?

Moses from the Jewish legend, Karna from the Vedic text Mahabharata and Sargon of Akkad of Mesapotamia. Why are the stories so similar? Were they developed independently? Did they have a common root?