After he was killed it was reportedly hung on the bow of the ship what killed him, but after they returned to port, what happened to his head?
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And how did his superiors feel about him burning 11(?) of their navy's ships? Frankly I'd be a little pissed. Were they expensive or important ships?
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In the movie Gladiator's opening scene and more recently in the newest Call of Duty you can use attack dogs, but it seems like it would be difficult to get dogs to attack only the enemy.
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First off, a few these questions may be slightly too recent for this subreddit, but I think the quality of the responses here are unrivaled.
I'm an American citizen with parents who came from China in the late 80's. I've always had a passion for history and the social sciences, but seeing that I grew up here my knowledge is mostly about the West. So the lack of knowledge of my own culture has been nagging me a bit.
I now go to a large university and I can't help but notice the huge population of mainland-Chinese students. One thing that strikes me is the massive wealth many of them have, driving $100k cars to and from school and wearing designer clothing. I know China has capital controls limiting the flow of wealth out of the country, so is it that the very wealthy student's families are circumventing them, or are the controls somehow not as strict as I imagined?
When my Dad came over for school, he was very poor and there were almost no fellow Chinese students to associate with. When I mentioned all these Chinese undergrads, he didn't believe it. At what point did universities start attracting international Chinese students? I know the start of the 90's coincided with the start of economic liberalization. How long did it take the new "middle"/upper class form? What are their main sources of wealth?
My parent's circle of friends consists entirely of fellow 1st-generation immigrants. Now I know due to restrictions on immigration that there was a huge period of no immigrants. My question is what happened to the Chinese communities that formed in the 19th century? What portion of the inhabitants of current Chinatowns can be traced back to them?
Also, if anyone has English literature to recommend with a nuanced view on modern Chinese history and the Chinese diaspora, it would be very appreciated! Heck, recommend me books about ancient China too.
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I mean they did that in 1923-25 when Germany was back on reparation payments due to hyperinflation, what where the problems of reoccupying the Ruhr when Germany was in breach of the treaty of Versailles?
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Essentially, I'm curious about what happened to people's affairs when they went off to war. Did they simply leave their belongings and apartments? What about school or work? Were jobs waiting for them when they came back?
As far as specific wars, I'm primarily interested in the US-involved modern wars (WWII to Vietnam), but I'd also be interested in non-US events and experiences in that timeframe.
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Vladimir Putin in his recent speech stated that it was Nikita Khrushchev who basically gave Crimea to the Ukrainian SSR taking it from the RSFSR in 1954, despite the fact that 'Crimea has always been an inseparable part of Russia'. This brings an interesting question: how come the same principle doesn't apply to Königsberg, or, as russians call it - Kaliningrad, which, if truth be told, is more german than Crimea is russian? Didn't this town belong to Germany up until 1946, when the soviets invaded it?
How legitimate would Germany's claims for Königsberg be compared to Crimean situation?
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I was watching Meet Me in St. Louis with my family (the 1945, I think, film with Judy Garland sent in St. Louis just before the World's Fair), and there's a scene where the children celebrate Halloween. But instead of trick-or-treating, the kids go door to door, throwing flour in their neighbors' faces and starting fires.
Is this consistent with Halloween traditions of the time, or is it meant to just be a kind of esoteric tradition, more unique to the neighborhood.
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I guess my biggest example is how the United States treats the native people of America. When the Roman Empire/Mongols/any other large empire was expanding did they give the people they invaded some sort of "reservations?" Did they just kill everyone or expect the people to forget their culture and assimilate to the new way?
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And how and why can we trust it?
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Belgian historian, Henri Pirenne asserted that early Frankish barbarians under the Merovingians actually maintained the Roman customs, laws, and institutions that allowed the Western Roman empire to continue to maintain its influence over trade in the mediterranean. Pirenne further asserts that Arab expansion in the 9th century cut Western Europe off from maritime trade in the mediterranean, effectively transforming Frankish Gaul from a connected economy of exchange into a closed economy of consumption and feudalism. Do you find Pirenne's claims legitimate?
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I recently did a school presentation on the Ustashe and couldn't believe the atrocities they committed, even when compared to those done by the Nazis. However, I feel as though there was some part of the picture that I was missing, particularly that of the aftermath of WWII. Why isn't this taught more in schools in either Europe or elsewhere?
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There are parallels to WW2 in the Harry Potter books, I wonder if this concept of extreme fear of one person has a real world counterpart.
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All of its neighbors have their own writing systems, yet Vietnam did away with theirs and used the Roman characters instead.
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Not the reason why he was exiled, but why to Mexico? I can't seem to find anything about that online.
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I've always been intrigued by bastard swords or nodachis (or equivalents) but don't know the real purpose. Is it for versatility? Do they compensate for a lack of strength? Or something else entirely?
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Was it something like some guy just said "Hey, the word "the" in my new language is "el" and "hello" is "hola" or something along those lines, because that seems like it would be very complicated
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