So I'm doing coursework on reasoms for the US defeat in vietnam, I'm including protests and i want to include the protests and riots of Chicago in 1968.

Like many people, i have seen the trial of the chicago 7 on netflix, and specifically want to use a quote from Tom Hayden "If blood is going to flow, let it flow all over the city"

I need to try and find a source for this quote that i can cite, i obviously can't use netflix though 🤣. Does anyone know where i might find one?

Thanks in advance

I was listening to Peter Frankopan's The Silk Roads the other day, and in a chapter on the Black Death, he quoted a contemporary source from England blaming the plague on women's immodesty. The medieval author was complaining about (and blaming) women wearing what he called "extremely short garments, which failed to conceal their arses or private parts".

That jumped out at me, because it sounds like he's describing something akin to a modern miniskirt, the existence of which in 14th century England would go against everything I thought I understood about standards of modesty and religious sensibilities of the time.

I only have the Audiobook, so I can't easily pull up the source he's quoting from, but assuming it's legit, do I just have a complete misunderstanding of how people dressed in the past? Or is this quote being misapplied or misunderstood? I guess it's possible the author was referring to prostitutes or some other group to whom modesty standards wouldn't exactly apply? Anyone know?

hello! i'm researching about fine dining trends throughout history and especially focusing on the change of tableware and plating techniques for my graduation project. does anyone know a good source for me to look these up? any documentaries, books, articles etc. would be very helpful, thank you all in advance!

Japan and Russia are only separated by 600 miles of ocean and share hundreds of miles of coastline that is adjacent to one another. While attempting to research the countries relationship throughout the centuries I couldn’t find much as most of the history between them was post WW2.

Are their any important history moments where the 2 countries went to war, made trade deals, or was it normal for Russian settlers to cross the ocean to settle in Japan (and vice versa). Did the 2 countries emperors and Czars keep tabs on one another’s countries? Thank you

So both south and north America had European colonizers, indigenous natives, and African slaves, but today Latin America is way more mixed than North America. I don't understand why the majority of Latinos are mixed, but the majority of North Americans really aren't. For example, in Brazil the percentage of black people is 8% despite having more slaves than america which is at 13%. But it looks that way because the african DNA was mixed with a bunch of other things and the average Brazilian has about 21% In places like central america the majority of the population is mestizo (mixed native/spanish) Why didn't America get a population like that? Why aren't the majority of americans a mix of British, native, and african like what we saw in latin america?

I realise that there were elections and that there was, at least nominally, a form of democratic government, but what actual power did it have over the Kaiser? And, what power did it have over the different states within Germany? I.e. states like Bavaria that still had their own king and hadn’t yet introduced a form of constitutional monarchy

A while back, I watched the movie Ben-Hur (1959). One scene that interested me was the scene when the Roman Fleet attacked the Macedonian pirates. Being a history nerd, I wanted to figure out more. So, how did naval warfare work in ancient times? How did they sink the other guy's ship and what were the tactics? Let's say around around the time of the Battle of Salamis.

I heard an offhand comment that slavery disincentivized investment in industrialization since why would a wealthy slave owner spend (just making up a number here) $100,000 for industrial equipment to improve production when they could buy new slaves for a fraction of the price? Do we have any sources to verify that this was the case?

I've done a little bit of research but it essentially boils down to first good and then really badly. I'd like to know more specific things if possible. I especially appreciate sources or direction for further knowledge.

Repost of question from /u/raketenfakmauspanzer

"I was reading about how Sulla granted his veterans land holdings in anti-Roman and anti-Sulla parts of Italy, particularly in Etruria and Umbria. How would his veterans travel there, and what would they need to get the land up and running? Did the Sullan soldiers that live there not face hostility by the local population?"

In the 17th century, buccaneers fortified the island of Tortuga to use as a base to raid Spanish merchant ships returning to Spain using the Windward Passage, which ran between Hispaniola and Cuba. If this was such a problem, why didn't the ships just go through the Mona Passage which ran between Hispaniola and Puerto Rico? For ships leaving from Central America, it would appear to be about the same distance.

As the title said, why did industrial revolution happened in Europe and not other, at the time, moredl developed civilization like China, India, and Arabia?

Did geographical, cultural, demographics, economic, and political factor (and others) played a role in this development? If they did, what specifically happened or did not happen in Europe that, vice versa, happened or did not happen in other regions?

Thank you in advance for any and all answer!

So i am obsessed with looking back at human history and finding that "1 day(s)" that changed everything we come think of reality of today. ...

I always thought the battle of Hastings was a "Domino effect" on Europe and did my Highschool AP history presentation on how this one battle changed everything for "Medieval Europe" which would eventually lead to world war 1 which.. tail spun everything else as we know now.

Thennnn.... I'm sitting up clipping my 40k minis and watch a show "Barbarians" and how a band of German Barbarians defeat 3 Legions of Rome and cause the Romans to retreat out of Germany and most of northern europe forever more. ... then i see the "Roman Domino's" start falling. Gengis Khan then invades Rome a little while later which leads to more Barbarian uprisings later ... granted... Battle of Hastings was monumental for the way English/French relations came about but could the Battle in Teutoburg Forest be the linch pin for 2 millennia worth of history changing forever?

I looked up the weaponry of the antic Greeks and Romans and most of their weapons and armour was made out of bronze and leather except their swords which were made out of iron/ a primitive form of steel. If steel was already a thing why didn't they use it for most of their weapons?

On the other hand in medieval Europe iron weapons and armour were the norm. What changed in that time that made it possible to have the whole weapons arsenal made out of iron?