When the Moors controlled Spain, was there much intermingling between the Spanish and the Moors? Were their many marriages between the two?

by radiohead87
Yawarpoma

I do not have very many texts on this period, but the one that I assign to students is Moorish Spain by Richard Fletcher. On page 39, in a discussion of daily life in Cordoba in the 9th century, he writes the following: "One of the most interesting features of the writings of Eulogius and Paul Alvarus is the light they shed on social relationships and religious affiliations in ninth-century Cordoba. These relationships and affiliations seem to have been fairly fluid. The number of mixed marriages between Muslim and Christian is striking. Several cases are reported of Christian converts to Islam who subsequently apostasised and returned to Christianity; of converts from Islam to Christianity; of differing confessional allegiances within a single family. Eulogius tells us of these cases simply because they led to disaster. We must make a large allowance for those that did not."

There is, therefore, clear evidence that marriage did exist between the two cultures at various stages of the Moorish Occupation and Reconquista. Remember, under the Moors, Jews and Christians had easier lives than their Muslim counterparts living under Christian rule. This atmosphere did allow for relationships to be born and maintained, especially in the first few centuries after the Moorish invasion. I would argue, however, that based on Elliot and Kamen's separate studies of Spain at the end of the Reconquista, those relationships would be few and far between. If they were maintained, it would certainly be under the Christian faith and then, only to those of lower social rank.