Was it before redlining, during / because of, or after? What were the arguments for/against it?
Property taxes are ancient, being a relatively easy-to-administer wealth tax. Only wealthy people owned property until a couple of centuries ago. On the other hand, large numbers of people paid regular wages from which income taxes could easily be withheld is a relatively recent development.
In the US, property taxation for local education dates back to the very beginnings of public education. Redlining is a completely unrelated practice, about where mortgages would be given or insured.
As fair as I know, in most places in the world, the two have no specific relation.