When Germany was being split after WWII, why didn't control of the west go to England and/or France? They were instrumental in the allied war effort and are geographically/historically much closer. I know they did collaborate with the Americans to establish the West, but at the end of the day it was the US sector. Was it just because the US and USSR were the main superpowers at the time and thus got first dibs?
Um. To put it simply, you're wrong. Originally, Germany was split into 4 zones of occupation: The Soviet Zone (which eventually became East Germany) and the US, British and French zones, which were joined to become West Germany in 1949. Here is a map showing the zones. Berlin was also dividing among the four powers, and much the same, the Soviet Zone became East Berlin and the 3 western powers joined their zones to become West Berlin.
The US was, by far, the largest of the western allies in terms of population, economy, and military size/power, so that explains their preeminent role. But each zone had its own policies and practices, certainly up to the establishment of the Federal Republic in 1949, and continuing on until the official end of the occupation and de-establishment of the occupation zones in 1955.
