What a strange question to ask...

We don't know whether Copernicus knew of Ockham's Razor or not. However, given that the concept goes back to Aristotle, who wrote "we may assume the superiority, all things being equal, of the demonstration which derives from fewer postulates or hypotheses," it's highly unlikely that Copernicus did not know about it or something similar.

Regardless, he doesn't mention it in his book 'De Revolutionibus Orbium Coelestium'.

And, I'm not sure he would have mentioned Ockhams' Razor in this context even if he did know of it: it's not really a strong argument to support the real behaviour of physical objects.