How far can current attitudes in Israel and/or the Occupied Territories be explained solely by the Declaration of the State of Israel in 1948?

by TomDunbar
gingerkid1234

Could you explain what you mean by your question? "Current attitudes" are outside the scope of this sub (we have a 20-year rule on discussion--only things from 1994 or earlier are "in bounds"), and as worded this is rather vague.

If I can answer what I think your question is, the declaration of independence wasn't a sudden shift in attitudes. It led to the invasion of the neighboring Arab countries, but after WW2 relations in Palestine between Jews and Arabs had devolved to civil war before independence was declared. And events both before (the riots in the 1920s), soon afterwards (such as the expulsions during the subsequent war), and much later significantly impacted how things with Israelis and Palestinians played out.