How did European countries without Empires (such as Poland) access tropical commodities (sugar, coffee, etc.)? Did they have less/pay more for these than countries like the UK?

by yingguopingguo
MrMysterious95

In the 16th-18th century Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth was a rather large state, and it can be argued that its "colonies" included large swaths of what is today Ukraine. Thanks to trade with the Ottomans, Poland had access to a lot of African and Asian commodities (coffee, spices).

During that period, Poland had access to Gdansk, a local center of export and import. Import then was sometimes a personal matter - if a local knight wanted to buy sugar for the next year, he just purchased it in Gdansk when he sold his grain. In 1776 Poland imported more wares than it exported.

After the Partitions of Poland, Poland itself became a "colony" of Russia, Austria and Prussia. However, thanks to industrialization of the period, there was less of a need to import wares like sugar or cotton. As Russia expanded eastwards, it improved the trade with China, and later even Japan. Imported wares were more expensive, but if they were necessary (like pepper or rare metals) they were imported.

Source: Jedlinski, Historia Gospodarcza Polski.

silverionmox

I have a source that required a tenant of a large farm (late 16th century; county of Loon, Prince-Bishopric of Liège) to supply a variety of spices (7 pound of ginger, 7 pound of pepper, a pound of nutmeg, cloves and cinnamon each) to the bailiwick. It's not specified how he ought to acquire them. The most likely explanation is that he purchased them on the market, the closest being Maastricht, or if necessary Antwerp. It does indicate that spices weren't out of reach for the equivalent of a medium business owner, even though the ultimate destination was a lord.