Who had the most advanced civilization in 0 BC?

by delitomatoes
Algernon_Asimov

How you do you define "most advanced" for a civilisation? Were the Romans more advanced because they had more engineering and better armies? Were the Chinese more advanced because they had a state-provided education system and detailed astronomical information? Were the Egyptians more advanced because they had a millennia-old civilisation which had created some of the largest monuments in human history? Were the Indians more advanced because they had developed mathematics to stage of using zero and had invented stirrups which enabled improved use of horses in warfare?

There really is no way to assess a civilisation as "most advanced".

vangopher

Quick note here, and while it isn't strictly an answer to your question I'm making a judgement call in making a top level comment to point this out. There isn't actually a year "0." On a timeline you would see 1 AD follow 1 BC.

400-Rabbits

Removed. This runs afoul of our rule against poll-type questions. /u/Algernon_Asimov makes some important points about how this question is unanswerable. If you have further questions you may send us a modmail.