Most history textbooks list the Treaty of Versailles as one of the factors in the rise of fascism in Germany. It essentially besmirched Germany by forcing them to pay crippling war reparations to the British and French, causing a wave of nationalism.
However, the Austro-hungarian was split up into several countries, which I think is just as bad as what happened to Germany. Why were there no affluent fascist dictators there?
Austria-Hungary (the area in guessing your asking about) suffered a worse fate than Germany. The entire Empire had been irreparably damaged economically by WW1, and the area had been divided up nationalistically in the treaties of Saint-Germain (with Austria) and of Trianon (with Hungary).
Galicia, the Northernmost part of the old empire, was granted to the new Polish Republic. Bohemia, Moravia and Slovakia, just south of Galicia, were all made independent in the new state 'Czechoslovakia', named after the Czechs and Slovaks which it represented (despite the fact that they had little in common with each other historically apart from both being Slavic).
The areas in the west which had Italian majorities were all given to Italy, plus some other areas on the Dalmatian areas (majority Croatian) which Italy was after. Austria had its connection with Hungary cut and was and forbidden from joining Germany (the country renamed itself 'German Austria' by popular vote shortly after). The areas to the south of Austria (Croatia, Slovenia) were all given to Serbia, which rechristened itself as 'Yugoslavia'. Transylvania was given to Romania, because of its Romanian majorities.
The problem with all this was that it ignored and angered nationalisms just as much as appeased them. Czechoslovakia was an entirely artificial creation with no historical precedent or populer consent. Galicia had many prominent Polish cities, especially in the north, but it had a Ukrainian majority. Transylvania had many assertive Hungarian and German minorities within it, such as the Székely. Yugoslavia, despite its ideal as a union of all South Slavs ('Yugo' mean south in Serbo-Croat) was in actuality an unstable country dominated by its Serbian monarchy. Its also lay national claim to the Croatian-dominated areas Italy had gained. Hungary after the territorial reorganisation now only governed just over 2/3s of all Hungarians.
The impact from all this was massive. Much like in Germany, dictators propped up across the areas. In Hungary, a nationalist with fascist tendencies by the name of Admiral Miklos Horthy rose to power (he would later on ally with Hitler). In Romania, a group by the name of the Iron Guard, which were just as racist as the Nazis grew on popularity until they eventually ruled the country under Ion Antonescu. Austria would flirt with fascism periodically until Anschluss occurred. Yugoslavia's instability would make it ripe for conquest by its neighbours, and Bulgaria (which had lost a lot in WW1 and allied with Germany too) would join in too when this happened.
So all in all, Austria-Hungary was just as badly hit as Germany, it was just never as powerful as the rest of the area and so could never do what Germany did.
Why were there no affluent fascist dictators there?
There was: the chancellor Engelbert Dollfuss was a fascist