Why isn't ~410 AD not considered as important as 1066 AD for England?

by setar1
Celebreth

Hey, just letting you know that I removed this question because not only is it a poll-type question, but it's also trivia seeking and involves a good bit of soapboxing. Please remember that this is Ask Historians, not Debate historians, /r/changemyview, or Lecture on my personal beliefs.

Also, just as a quick correction - the Rescript of Honorius was issued in 383 CE, rather than 410 :)

Thanks bunches! :)