Is there actual proof that elections commonly said to have gone one way because of the female vote, *really* went that way because of the female vote?

by masiakasaurus
rosemary85

I'm removing this as a loaded question.

If you were to ask if there has ever been an election in which women's votes mattered, the answer would of course be yes. But you're doing something else; and your question requires accepting the premise that "the election went one way because of women" has some meaning other than whether women's votes mattered. In other words, you're asking a question where you have to adopt a sexist stance even to think about it.