So in browsing reddit/the internet, I typically come across a scenario where one person says that Muslim rulers were relatively tolerant. Then another person exhorts the first not to over-state his case, and that Muslim rulers were indeed still very oppressive. Then somebody usually references jizya.
Is there something besides a differential tax rate that we can point to to show oppression from Muslim rulers? Or can somebody expand on the jizya to show how it was oppressive other than it wasn't exactly equal?
In addition to the poll-tax, non-Muslims were effectively second class citizens in the eyes of the law. This could have an effect on property rights, etc. On top of this, they were explicitly forbidden from evangelizing, and usually were not allowed to construct new places of worship. Sometimes they were not allowed to repair existing ones, though this seems to be the exception rather than the rule.
The goal was slow and willing conversion, effectively.