I am currently taking a free Coursera course called the Age of Sustainable Development. One of the assertions made by Professor Sachs is that "You could take a farmer from Roman times and if possible put him down into England on a farm in the 17th century and he would feel relatively at home."
Can anyone verify this? It sounds rather dubious to me.
Farming practices indeed changed a lot as well as tools and practices. Three-field rotation, mouldboard ploughs, the widespread use of horse shoes, improved horse harnesses, windmills and the achievements of the Arab Agricultural Revolution etc.
Of course, the difference between farming in the Roman era and in the 17th century is far smaller than between a 17 century and now, but this is applicable to a whole lot of other things.
Farming had not changed beyond all recognition, but it had changed between Roman times and 17th century England. The iron plough had been introduced, and the mouldboard plough. The plough was now more often drawn by horses than oxen (and even ox ploughs may have post dated Roman times). This was partly due to the innovation of the horse shoe.
Farming had become more productive. A farmer could grow more. Monasteries had introduced new crops and farming techniques. New crops from the New World were gradually being introduced, and some from the old world like sugar cane (but not in the average English farm).
More land was cultivated, forests had been cleared. Expansion of Agriculture had perhaps peaked in the 13th century. Thereafter, the little ice age caused a more problematic climate for agriculture in Europe, and the Black Death had depopulated the countryside.
By the 17th century, agriculture had perhaps mostly recovered from these setbacks.
As a farmer, it sounds extremely dubious. By the 17th century new world crops like corn (maize), potatoes and tomatoes would have been spreading around Europe. Now, that being said, the 18th century would bring many more changes, as Jethro Tull introduced his seed drill in 1701.