I apologize if this has been covered somewhere before, but a quick search didn't turn up any satisfactory results.

This may sound like a rather simple question, but given that Hitler emphasized Aryan superiority as a means of propaganda to mobilize the German population to his agenda, how did he - or other Germans - rationalize the fact that Hitler himself embodied none of the Aryan traits?

With my limited knowledge on the subject, I find it interesting that they were able to follow someone who promotes Aryan superiority, when he himself doesn't exhibit any of said traits.