This is a hugely broad subject. It could be argued that nearly every country that has had a revolution has had its day, and many countries we consider developed economically has had some form of revolution.

You've already mentioned the United States. France had a revolution (early 19th century), and is economically developed. Germany had a revolution following World War I, and is economically developed. China had a communist revolution (after the end of WWII), and is developing/successful economically. Japan had a revolution in the late 1860s that led to the reinstatement of the emperor (ending the shogunate), and is developed.

Of course, it depends how you define economically successful. Is it based on economic mobility through the classes? Is it defined as having a lower income inequality? Is it defined as having one of the largest GDPs around?

Then you run into the question of whether the revolution contributed to the success or not. How would you define that?

I think you may want to narrow your question down, or consider that...well, many countries we know of today has had a revolution at some point, even if they didn't look like the countries we know today when the revolutions happened. And economic success is a very relative term.