What would have happened if a child were to be conceived by the King/Lord/Ruler exercising his right of prima noctis?

by Thor_Odin_Son

Would that child have been raised by their mother and step-father? Would the child have been considered a Bastard? If it were a boy, would he inherit his step-father's lands and possessions?

[deleted]

This is an easy answer. There is no such thing as the right of prima noctis.

See:

  • Alain Boureau, The Lord’s First Night: The Myth of the Droit de Cuissage (University of Chicago Press, 1998).