So im reading "Soul Murder and Slavery" by Painter, Nell Irvin 1995 where the argument is put forth that the subjugation of women was a natural extension of the subjugation of the slave. Women in the work are shown to be without true power and derive their identity from the man in charge whether it be the husband, grandfather, father, son or brother.
So women were basically treated as slaves by their husbands as it was the only real frame of reference they knew. It was with the abolition of slavery therefor women could compare their own lives to that of slaves and the similarities i.e. endless toil for little/no reward.
Part of this is also mentioned in reference to religion in the South of the USA where Submission and Obedience are core values of slavery as well as of "the Patriarchy and Piety". So women and slaves are taught to obey the "man" in return for access to heaven.
So boiling it down, how true would the OP title be or would emancipation of women have occurred assuming slavery was still in effect.
I think you'd benefit from rephrasing your question to be non-hypothetical. Hypothetical questions are against the sub's rules and, to boot, impossible to answer directly.
Useful rephrasings might include:
Which slave holding society had the most rights for women?
Did women around the time of the end of slavery in the US express similar views as this book, that their freedom improved with the end of slavery?
Basically, for a hypothetical like this you need to decide for yourself, but can ask for data that you'd find convincing.