Why were the Western Allies willing to allow post war Poland to be under the Soviet realm of influence and not restore its prewar eastern border if maintaining Poland's autonomy was what reluctantly drug them into the war.

by coatspangler

Why were the Soviets allowed to keep a large portion of the Polish land they took in conjunction with the German invasion in '39? Furthermore, why was Poland allowed to remain under the sphere of Soviet influence after the war? Britain and France were under legal obligation to maintain Poland's autonomy. Why was Churchill so willing to redefine the borders of Poland at the Tehran Conference to accommodate the Soviet's land grab?

One of my German professors in college, Dietlinde Spears, was born in pre-war German Silesia. When the Soviets reached her hometown, her family was subjected to a death march to Prague in early 1945 and witnessed many atrocities. Later, she was sent back to the then Polish Silesia where she lived under communist rule for many years.

She often shared her childhood experiences and offered the opinion that Western Prussia, Silesia, and portions of Pomerania were given to Poland to appease Stalin's land grab and save face with the Poles. She described it a weakness of the West to uphold their commitment, and it allowed another dictator to further perpetrate horrible acts.

I feel extremely blessed to have met a primary source with a unique perspective in this period of history. However, I question Frau Spears context in this aspect because the way she was personally affected: The loss of her childhood home/way of life and her witnessing horrific crimes(rape and executions of family and friends) perpetrated by the Soviets. Therefore, I feel obligated to seek out additional information and context to get a better overview of the situation.

First off, I'm not looking for a critique of my professors credibility as a source. Her views were presented as opinion through the eyes of her situation, and she didn't masquerade as a historical expert. Moreover, I mentioned it to provide some context for my own understanding of the events and perhaps limit my own follow up questions.

cub1986

It boils down to the fact that by the end of the war the Soviets had 12 million men in arms and were firmly in control of Poland. The Western Allies could not restore Polish independence without expelling the Soviet Army which they were not prepared to do nor were they capable of doing it. The Soviets had approximately a 3 to 1 superiority in armed forces over the Western Allies.

Churchill ordered the relevant military authorities to draw up a hypothetical plan for the Western Allies to attack the Soviet Army in order to get 'a square deal for Poland' (Operation Unthinkable). Their report stated that the Soviets would most likely win.

The Soviets had been invaded twice from the West over the past thirty years and suffered defeat the first time and enormous casualties in the second; they were not going to give up this territory, which they viewed as a buffer.