This isn't really a fair or useful question to ask for a number of reasons.

First of all, Ukraine was under the influence of (and quickly ruled directly by) the Russian Empire by the middle of the 17th Century. That's over 350 years. Though there were a couple attempts at independence in the aftermath of WWI, Ukraine really has only been independent for a bit more than the past 22 years. Therefore there is no real method to judge Ukrainian vs Russian policy from any point from about 1650 to 1991.

Which brings me to my second point - the number of Jews in Ukraine/Russia was relatively limited until the partitions of Poland under Catherine the Great. While there were certainly SOME, this paled in comparison to those that were in then-Poland-Lithuania.

Speaking of Pales! Jewish migration within the Russian Empire was limited by what was called the Pale of Settlement. As you can see here, the Pale was roughly in line with the modern Russian border in the north, a bit west of it in the middle, and slightly east of it in the south. But the VAST MAJORITY of the areas Jews were allowed to settle in were in modern Ukraine, Belarus, Poland, and Lithuania (with the heaviest population, percentage-wise, concentrated in Poland, as seen here).

But regardless, this was all part of the Russian Empire (though Poland had some autonomy prior to 1830). People coexisted in relative peace until the late-19th century. While there were some pogroms in throughout the century, they were dwarfed by the number occurring in the last quarter of the 19th century.