Do you know any good primary or secondary sources for this that both argue for and against this argument (whether to a large extent or to a minuscule extent)
Good Question. The CIA had an extensive influence along with the British MI6 in the 1953 coup since during the early cold war years the U.S. and the British wanted to have as much influence and control as possible against the Soviets due to fear of possible Soviet takeover and of course oil interests mainly that of Britain's Anglo Persian Oil Company. After doing a little digging I found that the CIA apparently organized mass pro Shah protests against Prime Minister Mossadegh in 1952 and 1953 as well as bribing many Iranian politicians, security and high ranking army officials.
Here is some further reading of the sources I read from if you're interested.
http://www.iranchamber.com/history/coup53/coup53p2.php
http://rt.com/usa/iran-coup-cia-operation-647/
http://www.politico.com/story/2013/08/cias-role-in-1953-iran-coup-detailed-95731.html
To the extent that by 1978/9 it was widely (and accurately) believed in Iran that the US and Britain's secret agencies had influenced the 1953 coup, it surely had an effect on the outcome of the 1979 revolution against the Shah. The Pahlavi regime was viewed as dictatorial, capricious, overly luxuriant and un-democratic by its critics (among whom were both members of socially conservative anti-Imperialist Islamic groups and leftist/communist movements like the Tudeh (Masses) party). The Pahlavi regime after '53 largely relied on patronage systems, fueled by oil wealth, and viciously repressive police tactics (headed by the infamous SAVAK agency) to maintain its hold on power -- and its ability to do so was seen by many as conditioned by Western interests in keeping oil flowing, cheaply, out of Iran. The fact that M. Reza Pahlavi was originally harbored by the United States in the midst of the revolution fanned those flames. So if, by this question, you mean to ask whether the memory and after-effects of '53 had an influence on '79, then the answer (at least according to most of the scholarship on the issue) is an unequivocal yes.
If you mean something else by this question, then please clarify and I'll be happy to answer to the best of my ability.
Some further reading:
Nikki Keddie Roots of Revolution
Ervand Abrahamian Iran Between Two Revolutions
And you'll find a couple interesting sources on this in Akram Fouad Khater's Sources in Modern Middle East History