When Gaza and the West Bank fell under Egyptian and Jordanian control in 1948, did Palestinians seek independence from these countries?

by sputnik84

Additional, related questions: How did Palestinians distinguish themselves from their fellow Arabs while under occupation? Were they satisfied living under Egyptian/Jordanian rule?

[deleted]

By my understanding under both of those rules, they were pretty much left alone. The Israelis didn't like that and set out on a terrorist campaign against the British occupiers. Many of the early Israeli leaders were listed as terrorists by the British. The British finally just washed their hands of it and left which is when the apartheid began.

For centuries, Christians and Jews and Muslims existed in the land that is now Israel. But you can't really have a democracy and theocracy at the same time unless everyone who lives there is of the same religion. That is one reason Israel doesn't really want one country with equal rights for all because in a few years Muslims would outnumber Jews and where does that leave a Jewish nation?

Technically under Geneva convention rules, the land should have been returned to Egypt and Jordan. BUT neither one of these countries have ever really wanted them back.

The thing to keep in mind before there was an Israel, the land was never a country. There was no country of Palestine. Not that that is relevant to an ethnic group wanting their own homeland. There was no Israel before either.

Sorry that was rambling. I worked for a humanitarian organization for a while and did two tours in the Gaza strip for 4 weeks at a time. Definitely a life changing experience and learned a lot from both sides of the issue.