I'm aware that Spain colonized parts of America, and England colonized parts of Central and South America. But, for the most part, America and Canada have been influenced by English culture. And, for the most part, Central and South America have been influenced by Spanish and Portuguese culture.

It's a generalization, I know.

I'm just curious to why these different regions have prospered differently throughout history, and how it maybe correlates to the countries that colonized them.

hi! similar questions have been asked here before; check out this (non-exhaustive) list of posts for some of the previous discussions

How come the British colonies formed a superpower(USA) yet Spanish, Portuguese colonies formed into relatively undeveloped nations.

Why are former English colonies currently much more developed than former Spanish or Portuguese colonies?

Why, in general, have the ex-colonies of Great Britain more successful than their respective Spanish, Portuguese and French ex-colonies.

Why did the United States and Canada develop so differently from the other New World colonies?

What do you think of this comparison of British & Spanish New World colonies?

When did Anglo-America surpass Latin America economically?

Why are former Portuguese (I suppose) and Spanish colonies tend to be poorer and more corrupt than what the British controlled? Like Mexico and the Philippines compared to let's say Australia and Hongkong?