A big controversy is obviously made of the 3/5 compromise, since it gave Southern states representation for people who couldn't ever vote in the first place. But since white women were free people, did they also count as part of this calculation? And if so, did it generate a similar controversy since women could not vote until the 20th century?
If the woman was not a slave, then yes. In the 1790 census, the first census of the United States under the Constitution, "Free White Females" was a category (Black free women and men would be under "all other free persons"). The census was used to determine how many representatives a states should have, and the only group that did not count as an entire person, as you mentioned, were slaves. If the woman was free, then she was counted as a free person for the purpose of calculating representation in Congress.
http://www.census.gov/history/www/through_the_decades/overview/1790.html
As for the "did it generate a similar controversy since women could not vote until the 20th century" part of your question, I don't know, but I'm sure someone here does.
Hope I helped!