I'm studying Germany post WW1 at the moment, and I'm reading that chancellor Bruning used article 48 to enforce the economic policies that the Reichstag rejected. What I don't understand is why the president helped him by using article 48, why didn't he just say no? Or am i misunderstanding article 48 because as i understand it's used by the PRESIDENT but in this case its aiding the chancellor. Was bruning close with Hindenburg, therefore he helped him? I'm talking about around 1930.
German here, quickly looked into my extensive library about ww1. Hindenburg nominated BrĂ¼ning. I hope nominated is the right word. He gave Bruning the chancellorship. BrĂ¼ning asked Hindenburg to change the "Savety of Economy and Finances" into a emergency regulation, what he did.
/edit: chance is NOT change ;)
For your initial question: If they werent close, he wouldnt elected him as chancelor.