This might be a bit of a scientific question, but I have always wondered at what point on the colonial timeline early American or Canadian colonists and settlers lost their British, French, [insert language of origin] accents. It intrigues me to think about if and when they began to notice the loss of these accents and if this accent change did anything to socially differentiate people who had "American" loyalties from those who were British. I know this is a bit of a difficult question to ask, but any suggestions or partial answers would be much appreciated! Thanks!