As part of my bioethics course I have been tasked with leading a class debate on the rights of children with Fetal Alcohol Syndrome (FAS). During the discussion we realized that due to the prevelance of alcohol in (at least by our conclusions) western society, especially the middle ages, surely more of the population should be affected by ancestors of this disease.
My question is, when did it become common knowledge OR cultural taboo to abstain from alcohol during pregnancy? (Western society or otherwise)
This is my first AskHistorians question and I could not be more excited!!!
hi! don't want to dampen your excitment, or discourage more responses, but similar questions come up now and then in this sub, so do check out these previous discussions
Is there much evidence that Fetal Alcohol Syndrome existed before we defined it as a defect?
How prevalent was Fetal Alcohol Syndrome in non-modern societies?
How frequently did pregnant women drink alcohol before the discovery of fetal alcohol syndrome?
side conversation in In 19th Century Britain, how friendly would the butler have been with his master's children? Also, would the master have attended his butler's funeral?