Why do we refer to historic Islamic nations by their dynasty, but historic European nations by their people or place?

by nilhaus

I admit, the question may be flawed, since perhaps it is more that Europe is focused on defined titles tied to set bordered lands rather than tied to families and dynasties. I'll try to explain.

France is a kingdom with a roughly agreed upon border encompassing generally the French people. It's king is the King of France. While we recognize the many dynasties that have ruled France we don't call France from the 16th to 18th century the Bourbon Empire, yet we call Egypt in the 12th century as the Ayyubid Empire. Why not Egypt? Even when Napoleon conquered and expanded lands we still referred to it as France, not the Bonaparte Empire. Perhaps half of Europe could be lumped under Capetian or Hapsburg empires.

GeorgiusFlorentius

Terms like the Habsburg, Angevin, Carolingian or Ottonian Empire are, or have been used by historians (regardless of the controversy on the appropriateness of the term “Empire” for some of them, especially the first two). They are used to designate polities that don't have successor states (as in the case of the “Angevin Empire/Area”), or that have been broken up in various modern states (the others). I think that the same reasoning holds true for Islamic history: at its maximal extent, the Ayyubid Sultanate controlled Syria, Egypt, and Arabia's western coast. Therefore, it has no obvious modern counterpart, just like most medieval Islamic polities. Then, of course, the idea of a “successor state” in European history can be criticised; it may create too great an impression of continuity, and foster the idea that modern nations are necessary products of the 9th/10th century. However, it is difficult to deny that modern France formed over the course of an organic and continuous process over the course of a millenium, though this process was not inevitable, and that modern France was not its only possible outcome. All in all, I would tend to say the different nomenclatures on which you remark are guided by differences in European and Near Eastern histories (I don't feel confident enough to give a reason for this, at least from the point of view of Islamic history).