I'm briefly aware that wars between Scotland and England were common up to the early 17th century where England and Scotland were united under the rule of James I (or VI) and the subsequent Act of Union in 1707. But being an English-controlled territory to say like Ireland for several centuries, why is it that similar events to the Easter Rising never happened in Scotland around the same time? I know that attempts at colonisation in Ireland by the Normans stretched back to the 11-12th century, introducing 'English' control? So is it a case of population change or proximity etc?
Thanks.
Scotland wasn't an English controlled territory. James the 1st himself was a Scottish king. It has a completely different history to Ireland.
Actually, at the time of the union, there were a lot of very violent riots in Edinburgh, but the people were subdued.
Similar things did actually happen in the early 20th century in Scotland, but the risings were subduded again, and the risings were socialist rather than specifically anti-English. Look up the Red Clydeside movement if you want to learn more.