Do corporations in Western European countries really give more vacation time and expect fewer working hours, compared to America? If so, when and how did this discrepancy originate?

Sorry, but I have to remove this post. This question, as phrased, violates the 20-year limit we have for historical questions. You could post it in /r/AskSocialScience or perhaps rephrase it so that it pertains to a particular (pre-1994) time period.