Why was Rome without a consul from 375BC to 371BC?

by OlderThanGif

In another thread, /u/fubus2 linked to this list of Roman consuls. 375BC to 371BC are listed as "anarchy years" which is something I've never heard of before. I'm sure this is a simple factual question, but I can't find anything through googling. Wikipedia doesn't say there was anything eventful happening in Rome in 376BC or 375BC. Why did Rome not have a consul for these years?

ScipioAfricanvs

That comes from the Varronian Chronology, in which he lists those years as not having any consuls or tribunes. If we are to take it as true, the presumption would be there was great instability, perhaps stemming from unrest by the plebians, which would explain why the Lex Licinia Sextia (which guaranteed 1 consul would be a plebian) was introduced around this time, though not in effect until 367 BC. But that's not necessarily a safe assumption to make; there is some doubt as to whether there really were any "anarchy years". When Forsythe mentions those years he frames it as "allegedly", but I'm not an expert on the historiography of the Chronology.