How was Hitler able to justify allying with Japan, since the Japanese didn't fit into the parameters of the Aryan perfect race?

by Purdaddy

Did Hitler just see more advantages in allying with the Japanese? Did he have any plans for Japan if the Axis had won the war?

Searocksandtrees
[deleted]

I just want to point out a few things, as the other reasons are well covered in the FAQ. The nazis didn't really have a formula for who was Aryan and who was not. It in some ways can be looked at as a status. Several important Japanese officials were given "honorary" aryan status during the war. But the most insightful look into the nazi opinion of the Japanese can be found in mein Kampf. Hitler expresses admiration for the Japanese culture and history and he admits that their history and heritage are more extensive than Europe's. He also talks about what hitler thought was an "Aryan" influence on Japan, hitler placed the Japanese above the other Asian nations and explained that japan was the dominant Asian power because of their "Aryan" heritage.

It should also be noted that much of the prodding for an alliance between Germany and Japan was done at the behest of German foreign minister Von Ribbentrop. Germany had signed the anti-Comintern pact with Japan in 1936, but Ribbentrop took it further; Ribbentrop pushed Hitler to break relations with Chiang Kai Shek's china and recognize the Japanese puppet government of Manchuko. But more than anything it was a shared hatred of the Soviet Union which brought the nations closer together.