i'm working on a paper, trying to dissect and understand the relationship between Agamben's state of exception and 3 specific instances of legal "othering", prisoners in guantanamo, undocumented citizens, and slaves- using habeas corpus as a lens. Can somebody give me some perspective on if slaves were able to use habeas corpus ever? I've searched jstor, lexisnexis and good old google and i'm coming up pretty short. Thanks!