I was reading about the Copts in Egypt and i came through this part
"The Copts were severely affected by Nasser's nationalization policies because, though they represented about 10–20% of the population,[30] they were so economically prosperous that they held more than 50% of the country's wealth."
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Copts
That is similar to jews in some aspects.
So my questions are:
1- Do we have more examples of excluded minorities with more proportionally wealth than the rest of populace?
2- Is possible to these minorities prosperity be associated with they state of exclusion? Just wondering if they were obligated to look for other ways to prosper( since public work is impossible and the discrimination as a regular work would drive then off).
Sorry for my English.
The Chinese in Malaysia do face discrimination in government jobs but are overly represented in the legal profession and business elites.
One could argue that Malaysia's relative wealth compared to Indonesia is due more to the presence of the Chinese ($17000 per capita GDP in Malaysia vs $5200 in Indonesia ).
I have a question too: in Brazil there is a stereotype about arabs being wealthy. I always used to think it was normal that arab immigrants would come to a country, form their small community, and proceed to help each other and work with commerce until they eventually got there.
But apparently, there is no such stereotype in US media. Isn't the arab community wealthy there? Maybe it's related to the time period when the arab immigration happened?