In short yes, but we must first understand how genocide is defined. I am going to use the U.N. definition of genocide as introduced or championed by Raphael Lemkin. As you can see point c states "Deliberately inflicting on the group conditions of life calculated to bring about its physical destruction in whole or in part." It is in this facet that I feel the Holodomor falls into. Stalin was not ordering the explicit execution of Ukrainians, but what he was doing was creating deliberate conditions for them to be unable to survive, and he did so knowing full well the consequences of his actions.

There is some additional nuance to this point of view, that while not necessarily genocide, the actions are clearly genocidal but I largely feels these are more semantic in nature and relate somewhat to intent. That is, the death of the Ukrainians was not the original goal of collectivization and industrialization, it was a side effect that was most likely intended and once underway not prevented.

The issue of whether states consider it a genocide again come back to ideas of intent, whether it was on purpose. I am not to knowledgeable on the current debate unfortunately so I cannot provide too much insight in that respect.

If you would like to read more about the Holodomor or other genocides Adam Jones is a really good source.

I hope this helps.

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