Were there any notable conversions between 1 AD and the current day that would affect the current Ashkenazi population? I know that the question of Khazar influence has recently be tending in the negligible direction, but overall, what is the likelihood?
Just to clarify, but by "100 percent", you are referring to the likelihood that their entire family tree for the past 2000 years is traced back to Jewish inhabitants of the region at that time, as opposed to a 100 percent likelihood that they can trace at least one branch back that far?