Oh, definitely. In fact, the Shari'ah makes a provision for separate laws to apply to non-Muslim communities living within a Muslim state. Christians, Jews, and Zoroastrians (later Hindus and Buddhists), were allowed to have a semi-autonomous legal code within the dhimmi system. The Ottoman millet system is a good example of this. The laws were not absolute (primarily personal law, not criminal) and a non-Muslim had the option of taking a case to a Muslim court if they so desired.

With that said, this is a historical answer. And without going into details about any country in the modern world, people are selective in how they view history. Just because this is how history played out doesn't mean that revisionists won't selectively ignore parts in order to suit their own agenda.

An interesting historical note about this, by the way, is that marriage is something which fell under personal law and thus Shariah laws on marriage did not apply to non-Muslims. While I'm not aware of gay marriage ever coming up as a topic of discussion, incestual marriage did. The famous jurist Hasan al-Basri ruled that the Islamic state could not stop incestual marriage between two non-Muslims as Shari'ah law stipulated that Islamic personal law was restricted to Muslims.